白鹭洲中学教育集团2024—2025学年第二学期
七年级第一次质量监测英语试卷
命题教师：
考生注意：
1．试卷所有答题都必须写在答题卷上。
2．答题卷与试卷在试题编号上是一一对应的，答题时应特别注意，不能错位。
3. 考试时间为120分钟，试卷满分为120分。
一、听力测试(20分)
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
( )1. What is that
A lion. B. A tiger. C. A panda.
( )2. What should Jim do
A. Eat food. B. Be quiet. C. Make phone calls.
( )3. What can the panda do
A. Play soccer. B. Play with a ball. C. Play basketball.
( )4. What are they talking about
Rules. B. Music. C. Teachers.
( )5. What pet does Lucy have
A. A dog. B. A bird. C. A cat.
B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
请听第1段对话，回答第6、7小题。
( )6. Who is Becky
A new teacher. B. A new doctor. C. A new student.
( )7. Where can they eat food
A. In the classroom. B. In the dining hall. C. In the library.
请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。
( )8. What is the cat like in the picture
A. It’s friendly. B. It’s cute. C. It’s interesting.
( )9. What are the two speakers talking about
A. Animals. B. Food. C. Family.
请听第3段对话，回答第10至12小题。
( )10. What does the girl want to wear for the party at first
A. White trousers. B. New shorts. C. Blue shoes.
( )11. Who does the boy want to bring to the party
A. Peter. B. Jenny. C. Steve.
( )12. What will the teachers do if the students bring a friend
A. They will ask him to leave.
B. They will welcome him to stay.
C. They will ask him to sing or dance.
请听第4段对话，回答第13至15小题。
( )13.What is the first rule Mark talks about
A. No phones at the dinner table.
B. Clean his room at weekends.
C. No friends over during the week.
( )14. What housework does Lucy have to do
A. Wash the dishes. B. Clean her room. C. Take out the trash.
( )15. Why does Lucy think family rules are important
A. They help them live together better.
B. They make life wonderful.
C. They help them learn something .
C）请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。（每小题1分）
16. The Big Zoo is _________________ the bus station(站) .
17. Kangkang the panda is __________________ .
18. You can see Kangkang every_____________________.
19. Benben is a giraffe and Huhu is a _____________________ .
20. Both Benben and Huhu are _____________________ .
二、单项填空(8分)
请阅读下面各题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。(每小题1分)
( )21. —Don’t forget to turn ________ the lights when you leave the room.
—OK, I won’t.
A．off B．on C．up D．down
( )22. — You mustn’t swim here . Look at the sign . It _______“ No swimming .”
— Oh , I ________ notice it . Thanks for telling me .
A. says ；don’t B. writes ; don’t C. says; didn’t D. writes ; didn’t
( )23. —How long can I ________ your CD player
—For two weeks.
A．lend B．borrow C．get D．keep
( )24. Elephants can ________ for a long time and never get lost.
A．walk B．walks C．walking D．to walk
( )25. Let’s _________ the pandas first.
A．to see B．seeing C．see D．sees
( )26. The question is ___________easy for me. I can work it out in two minutes.
A. never B. soon C. quite D. else
( )27. — The baby needs great ___________ when you are playing with it.
— Yes. I will look after it well.
care B. luck C. hearing D. mind
( )28．Tom is a ___________ boy. He cannot see anything at all.
A. boring B. smart C. dangerous D. blind
三、完形填空(26分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。(每小题1分)
It is Sunday today. Peter doesn’t go to___29___ this day. Now he is free and he wants to___30___ computer games, but his mother Mrs. Smith asks him to do___31___ Chinese homework first. Then he can do the things he likes. Peter is ___32___. He asks,“Mum, do you love me ”
Mrs. Smith says,“Yes, of course I ___33____, my dear.”
“Then why don’t you ___34___ me play computer games ___35___ can’t I do what I want ”says Peter.
Mrs. Smith puts Peter’s clothes on the ___36___ and ask him,“Dear, do you love me ”Peter says,“___37___.”Then Mrs. Smith says,“Great! Dear, I don’t want to do the things I don’t like and I don’t want to wash your____38____. Why do you always ask____39___ to wash them And you can play computer games___40___you wash them.”
Peter looks at all the clothes ___41___ the sofa(沙发) and says,“Mum, I must do my ___42___ homework now. I love you.”Then he goes into his ____43___. What a clever mother!
( )29. A. club B. park C. bed D. school
( )30. A. buy B. sell C. play D. find
( )31. A. his B. her C. your D. my
( )32. A. tidy B. unhappy C. healthy D. free
( )33. A. do B. am C. can D. must
( )34. A. let B. need C. want D. see
( )35. A. How B. Where C. Why D. Who
( )36. A. chair B. desk C. table D. sofa
( )37. A. Well B. Right C. Sure D. Really
( )38. A. clothes B. schoolbags C. shirts D. shoes
( )39. A. them B. him C. us D. me
( )40. A. after B. when C. so D. and
( )41. A. in B. on C. under D. behind
( )42. A. art B. history C. Chinese D. maths
( )43. A. class B. plane C. library D. room
B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)
bike drink rules on so happy a take new are they
Do you often travel by subway You may feel _____44_____ when people play music or videos on the subway. It's not _____45_____ problem for people in Shanghai now. There are some new rules for Shanghai Metro! The first______46______ rule is "No using loudspeakers(扬声器)”. Subway riders must follow it when they_____47________ the subway. They have to use earphones when they listen to music or watch movies on ______48______ phones. But some people don't follow the new rule, ______49_______subway workers will stop them. There ____50______also some other rules. People can't bring____51______ into the subway station. People cannot eat or ____52_____in subway cars. People welcome the new ______53______.They can help subway riders. They also need the same rules _______54_______buses and trains.
44.___________ 45.__________ 46.__________47._________ 48._________ 49._________
50.___________ 51.__________ 52.__________ 53._________ 54._________
四、阅读理解(46分)
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。(每小题2分)
A
Rules in The Wenhua Middle School
You must:
◆Arrive at school before half past seven every morning.
◆Hand in your homework before eight.
◆Look clean and tidy.
◆Be quiet in the library.
◆Stay on the playground at break time.
◆Stand up when a teacher comes into the classroom.
You mustn’t:
◆Wear jeans.
◆Eat or drink in the classroom.
◆Bring your cellphone (手机) to school.
◆Run in the school buildings.
◆Talk loudly (大声地) in the hallways.
◆Fight.
( )55. What can’t you do when you are in the school buildings
A. Eat or drink. B. Run. C. Talk loudly. D. Listen to music.
( )56. Where can you stay at break time
A. At home. B. In the library. C. On the playground. D. We don’t know.
( )57. When do you have to get to school every morning
A. Before half past seven. B. Before eight.
C. Before half past eight. D. Before seven.
B
①Everyone is talking about “digital citizens(数字公民)”，but what is it Well, a digital citizen is a person who often uses the Internet. A good digital citizen always follows the Internet rules and helps make the Internet a great world. Are you a good digital citizen If you don’t know how to use the Internet in a safe way, here is what you can do.
②Stay safe.
To stay safe, do not tell anyone online your real name, phone number, home address or the neighbourhood you live in. Remember the rule: Don’t let strangers（陌生人） find you.
③Be kind.
Before you want to say something online, stop and think: How will your words make other people feel Don’t say something online that you don’t say in real life.
④Be careful.
Don’t trust everyone or everything online. People on the Internet may not tell the truth. Never open emails from strangers. Tell your parents or teachers if someone online makes you uncomfortable(不舒服).
⑤Spending time online can be great if we’re good digital citizens. So be safe and have fun!
( )58. According to the text, when you spend time online, you can’t give out your_________.
①full name ②school rules ③home address ④telephone number
A. ①②③ B. ①③④ C. ②③④ D. ①②④
( )59. What can we know from the text
A. A good digital citizen can’t use the Internet every day.
B. A good digital citizen can make new rules for the Internet.
C. A good digital citizen helps make the Internet a safe place.
D. A good digital citizen can say anything when spending time online.
( )60. The structure of this text may be _________.
A. ①/②③④⑤ B. ①/②③④/⑤
C. ①②/③/④⑤ D. ①②③④/⑤
( )61. What’s the purpose(目的) of the text
A. To show how to be a good citizen. B. To tell the importance of safety.
C. To share ways to keep safe online. D. To talk about everyday activities online.
( )62. The text is written for __________.
A. parents B. teachers C. students D. doctors
C
We often talk about snails(蜗牛) and their slow move. Much of the time snails don't move. They sleep in their shells(壳).
Hot sun will dry out a snail's body. So at the least sign of hot sun, a snail draws its body into its shell.
A snail will die in a heavy rain. So when it rains, a snail does the same thing, too. A snail can sleep for as long as it needs to. It spends all the winter months in its shell, asleep.
In spring the snail wakes up. Its body, about three inches long, comes out from the shell. When hungry, it looks for food. Its eyes, at the end of the top feelers(触角), are weak. But its sense(感觉) of smell is strong. It helps the snail to find food and the new greens.
A snail has about 256,000 teeth! The teeth are so small, and you can't see them. Put a snail in a hard paper box, and it will eat its way out! If a snail wears out its teeth, it will grow new ones.
( )63. A snail .
A. moves more slowly at night B. has thousands of feet
C. doesn't move at all D. sleeps much of the time
( )64. What does the underlined word "draws" mean
画画 B. 吸引 C. 移动 D. 吹动
( )65. From the story, we know that .
A. a snail's shell is very thin B. a snail can't see well
C. a snail's feelers are quite short D. a snail can't smell well
( )66. Which of the following is wrong
A. In winter the snail doesn't eat or move. B. A snail doesn't like living under the sun.
C. The snail can't grow new teeth. D. The snail's feelers help to find food.
( )67.Wha’s the best title of the passage
A. The Introduction（介绍）of Snails B. The Snails in Spring
C. Snails’ Teeth D. Snails’ Hobbies
D
Family rules help children learn what is and isn't OK in the family. Following them can help children learn to follow rules in other places, so it's not good to make rules too late. Good family rules are easy for children to understand.
One day, on the way home from school, my mom told me she was going to make some new rules for me, for my brothers and sisters. Before this, we knew she wanted us to be good, but we really didn't have any rules. Well, Mom cared about that.
On Sunday she started giving us some rules. Clean your rooms every other day. Prepare for dinner at 7: 00 p. m. That means sitting at the table with clean hands. If Mom is having a meeting in the house, be very quiet. That means turning down the music and the TV. Prepare for bed at 9: 30 p. m. and get up at 7:30 a. m. to get ready for school. Take out the litter on Monday morning before school. Clean the bathroom(浴室）on Friday.
Following these rules isn't too hard, and sometimes it's even fun. Other times, it can be tough. For example, if your room is really dirty and you can't finish cleaning it on that day, you have to finish it on the next day, along with something else you have to do. That isn't easy.
Mom makes these rules because she loves us a lot. She wants us to learn how to be on time, be clean and tidy and be polite. Every day, we try to follow her rules. These rules help make our family warm and happy. I feel lucky to grow up in such a family.
( ) 68. What should the children do according to the new rules
① Clean their rooms every day. ② Never watch TV.
③ Wash hands before dinner. ④ Prepare for bed at 9:30 p.m.
A.①② B.②③ C.③④ D.①④
( ) 69.What should the writer do on Friday
A. Take out the rubbish. B. Clean the bathroom.
C. Have a family meeting. D. Look after sisters and brothers.
( )70. What does the underlined word“tough” in Paragraph 4 mean
A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Relaxing. D. Boring.
( )71.Which of the following is true
A. The family eat dinner at 6:00 p.m.
B. The children have to get up at half past six every day.
C. Rules help the children be clean and on time.
D. There are four people in the writer's family.
( )72.What does the writer think of their new family rules
A. Strict. B. Exciting. C. Terrible. D. Helpful.
B)请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从下面方框的七个选项中，选择五个还原到文章中，使短文意思通顺、合理完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。
Animals are important to us and they are our friends. But some of them are in great danger now______73_______.
◆ Don’t eat wild animals’ meat. Some of us like to eat meat. But do you know some meat comes from endangered animals ______74______ And it’s good for us too.
◆Don’t wear clothes made of fur. _______75_______ But if we don’t buy clothes made of fur, people will not kill animals.
◆ Please give away money to Animal Helpers. Animal Helpers does everything to help save animals. _______76________ So save some money and give it away to Animal Helpers to help animals.
◆ _______77_______ Not all people know animals are our friends and that we must save them. So why not tell people around us that it’s important to save animals
A. You can keep a pet. B. But they often need money. C. Animals are friendly to people. D. What can we do to help save them E. To save animals, don’t eat their meat. F. Sometimes people kill animals for their fur. G. Tell people it’s important to save animals.
73.__________ 74.__________ 75.___________76.___________ 77.___________
五、补全对话(5分)
请阅读下面对话，根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处，使对话通顺、合理，意思完整。一空一句。(每小题1分)
(Adam is talking with Wu Liang. Adam= A, Wu Liang =W)
A: Hi, Wu Liang! 78.__________
W: Yes, I am.
A: Can you go out with me now
W: Yes, I can. 79.__________
A: You know, I like animals very much. So I want to go to Qinyuan Mountain. We can see monkeys, tigers, lions and so on there. 80.__________
W: Monkeys of course.
A: 81.__________
W: Because they are cute and lovely. How can we get there I think we can take a bus to get there.
W: 82. __________
A: About half an hour.
W: Ok. Let’s go now.
(
A
．
Why do you like them
B
．
Where do you want to go
C
．
Are you free this afternoon
D
．
Would you like to go with me
E
．
What animals do you like best
F
．
How long does it take us to get there
G
．
How far is it from here to Qinyuan Mountain
)
78.__________ 79.__________ 80.__________ 81.__________ 82.___________
六、书面表达（15分）
学校英文报刊主编决定开展主题为“Follow and Grow(家规促成长)”的英语征文活动。请你根据以下信息写一篇英文短文投稿。
内容包括：
(1)What are your family rules
(2)What do you think of the family rules
注意：
(1)包含所有要点并适当发挥；
(2)文中不得出现人名和校名等真实信息；
(3)写作词数为70左右，标题和开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Follow and Grow
A country has its laws and a family has its rules too. My family also has some rules.白鹭洲中学教育集团2024—2025学年第二学期
七年级第一次质量监测
英语听力材料、参考答案和评分标准
一、听力测试(20分)
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
1. W: Is that big animal a tiger
M: No, it’s a lion.
2. W: Don’t make phone calls or eat food in the library, Jim. You must be quiet.
M: Sorry, Mrs. Brown.
3. W: Look! That elephant can play soccer.
M: Yeah! And that panda can play with a ball.
4. W: We have so many awful rules. We can’t eat in the classroom, talk in class or listen to music in class.
M: Sounds bad. But I think you should follow them. Teachers make rules to help you.
5. M: Do you like animals, Lucy
W: Yes, I have a pet cat called Ann. She is very smart.
B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
请听第1段对话，回答第6、7小题。
W: Hi! My name is Becky.
M: Hi! I’m Tom. Nice to meet you! Are you a new student here
W: Yeah. Can we eat food in the classroom
M: No, we can’t. But we can eat food in the dining hall.
W: OK. I remember. What else do we have to do
M: We have to wear the school uniform. And don’t be late for class.
W: I see.
请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。
M: Hi, Julia! What’s that
W: It’s a picture of my cat. It’s cute, so I like it.
M: What other animals do you like
W: Pandas and monkeys.
请听第3段对话，回答第10至12小题。
M: Jenny, what will you wear for the party tonight
W: I think I’ll wear my new shorts.
M: If you do so, the teachers will not let you in.
W: Really Why
M: There’s a new rule. You can’t wear shorts at the school dance party.
W: Okay. I will not wear shorts. What will you wear, Steve
M: I’ll wear my white trousers and a blue shirt. And I’d like to bring my friend Peter.
W: But if you bring your friend, the teachers will ask him to leave. That’s also a rule.
M: Oh, that’s terrible.
请听第4段对话，回答第13至15小题。
W: Hey, Mark! What rules do you have in your family
M: Hi, Lucy! We have a rule about no phones at the dinner table. What about you
W: That’s similar to my family! We also don’t use phones during meals.
M: I think it helps us talk better. We also have to do our chores at weekends.
W: Chores can be a lot of work! My family want me to clean my room every Saturday.
M: Same here! My parents say it can help us learn something.
W: I think family rules help us live together better.
C）请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。（每小题1分）
Do you like animals Come to big Zoo! It’s next to the bus station. Here you can see many kinds of animals. There is Kangkang the panda in our zoo. He is interesting. You can see him every Tuesday and Sunday. We also have Benben the giraffe and Huhu the whale. They are friendly. So come to our zoo and have a great time here.
参考答案和评分标准
一、听力部分（每小题1分，共20分）
1-5、ABBAC 6-10、CBBAB 11-15、AAABA
16、next to17、interesting18、Tuesday and Sunday 19、whale 20、friendly
二、单项填空（每小题1分，共8分）
21-25、ACDAC 26-28、CAD
三、完形填空（每小题1分，共26分）
A) 29-33、DCABA 34-38、ACDCA 39-43、DABCD
B) 44、unhappy 45、a 46、new 47、take 48、their 49、so
50、are 51、bikes 52、drink 53、rules 54、on
四、阅读理解（每小题2分，共46分）
55-57、BCA 58-62、BCBCC 63-67、DCBCA 68-72、CBACD 73-77、DEFBG
五、补全对话（每小题1分，共5分）
78-82、CBEAF
六、 书面表达（15分）
Follow and Grow
A country has its laws and a family has its rules too. My family also has some rules.
First，we should be polite and treat one another with respect. Second, after school, I must do my homework first. I can't go out with my friends at night. On weekdays, I can't watch TV, play computer games or listen to music. Besides, my parents and I need to do some housework on weekends.
As we all know, family rules play an important role in our daily life. I think these rules are strict, but they are good for my family. They make my family happy and healthy. We can live a happy life.
