2024-2025第二学期人教版英语七下期中测试(含答案及听力音频听力原文)

第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
I. 短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What are Emma’s favourite animals
A. B. C.
2. What doesn’t Helen have to do every day
A. B. C.
3. How often does Mike go swimming
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Once a month.
4. What does the girl think of Tony’s eating habits
A. Delicious. B. Unhealthy. C. Balanced.
5. Where are the speakers probably
A. In the market. B. In the park. C. In the zoo.
II. 长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答问题。
6. Where can Jack find Chinese traditional art
A. On the 4th floor. B. On the 5th floor. C. On the 6th floor.
7. Why can’t they use flash lights in the museum
A. Because it’s bad for the eyes. B. Because it’s not good for the works.
C. Because it may causes smokes.
听下面一段对话,回答问题。
8. What does Peter have for breakfast
A. Bread and eggs. B. Milk and bread. C. Milk and snacks.
9. Why can’t Peter get up on time
A. Because he has to do his homework late.
B. Because he plays computer games late.
C. Because he helps his parents cook late.
10. What may Peter do in the future
A. Go to bed early. B. Eat lots of snacks. C. Go to school without breakfast.
III. 短文理解(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文.短文后有五个小题,请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When is the panda show
A. At 9:00. B. At 10:00. C. At 11:00.
12. How long is the monkey show
A. 0.5 hours. B. 1 hour. C. 1.5 hours.
13. Where can you have lunch
A. At home. B. In the zoo. C. In the shopping center.
14. How many shows are there in the after noon
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
15. What is the speaker mainly talk about
A. Amazing animals. B. Animal shows. C. Animal facts.
IV. 信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
No sports, no life.
● only have PE lessons 16.________ a week, but play sports every day.
17.________ sports Basketball ● boys and many of the girls 18.________ playing it
Football ● there are a lot of football 19.________ in the class
● often has friendship games with teams from other 20.________
第二部分语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. —I didn’t make any ________ this time. I’m afraid I will never learn it well.
—It’s too early to say that.
A. progress B. energy C. practice D. respect
22. —Why is Lisa ________ from school today
—Because she fell off her bike and broke her right leg yesterday.
A. absent B. present C. different D. afraid
23. Wang Hao takes up weiqi as his hobby. His parents have nothing against it because they think it can ________ his decision-making skills.
A. balance B. encourage C. improve D. understand
24. Would you please turn down the music, it’s hard for me to ________ my work.
A. put on B. focus on C. get on D. turn on
25. —I’d like two ________ and two kilos of ________.
—OK. Here you are.
A. tomato; chickens B. potatoes; chickens C. potato; chicken D. tomatoes; chicken
26. —Do you often say “I love you” to your parents
—Yes, a lot. They say “I love you” to me on my birthday and I say that to them on ________.
A. they B. them C. their D. theirs
27. —Why is your young brother getting fatter and fatter
—Because he ________ do any sports.
A. often B. seldom C. usually D. always
28. —You can certainly do it well ________ you keep on trying the rock climbing.
—All right. I will try again.
A. if B. or C. so D. but
29. —Would you come to the party tomorrow
—I’d love to, but I’ll ________ prepare for my exam.
A. can B. must C. have to D. should
30. —What about going for a camping in the park tomorrow
—_______
A. You’re welcome. B. Thank you. C. Good idea. D. Good luck.
VI. 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Today my class is going to the zoo for a trip. Everyone is ____31____.
____32____ all the children get into the big, yellow school bus, everyone is making too much ____33____. I roar(吼叫) like a lion, and my friend Matt laughs like a hyena(鬣狗). The ____34____ says we sound like a bus full of monkeys!
When we ____35____ the zoo, we look at a big map. It shows where the different animals live. I look around and see a ____36____. It has black and white stripes(条纹). Mrs. Green says they like to stay ____37____ and they only eat plants. A group of zebras is called a herd(兽群).
Next we see the lions. A group of lions is called a pride(狮群). The male lion has a mane(鬣毛) of ____38____ fur around his head. The lion cubs(幼狮) play nearby. I roar again, and the little lion cubs ____39____ playing and look at me!
We saw many ____40____ kinds of animals at the zoo. It was a wonderful trip. I hope we can go back again soon.
31. A. tired B. tiring C. excited D. exciting
32. A. Before B. After C. Until D. Since
33. A. voice B. sound C. noise D. shout
34. A. driver B. teacher C. keeper D. guide
35. A. reach B. get to C. arrive in D. arrive at
36. A. zebra B. panda C. penguin D. tiger
37. A. together B. alone C. apart D. away
38. A. short B. long C. thick D. thin
39. A. finish B. stop C. enjoy D. keep
40. A. special B. famous C. popular D. different
B
Starting your day with a healthy meal is great for your wellbeing. Do you often ____41____ breakfast
Breakfast is very important because it gives you enough ____42____. It also provides the nutrients(营养物) that your body needs to grow and work properly. Eating ____43____ before school makes it easier to focus in lessons. It also helps you control your emotions(情绪).
Breakfast benefits your attention, ____44____ and organising skills. This is because it fuels(提供能量) your body and feeds your brain. When you ____45____ without eating for 10 hours in the morning, your glucose(葡萄糖) levels will be ____46____. Scientists say our brains rely a lot on glucose, so if you don't eat well you may have a bad ____47____ during the day.
You should try to make time to eat, such as getting up 10 minutes ____48____. You can fill up with a mixture of different ____49____ in one dish. Low sugar cereal or muesli is good, as well as porridge with fruit and nuts, or home-made pancakes. If you are short of time, I ____50____ to blitz(快速) up some fruit and vegetables with yoghurt and oats(燕麦) for a quick smoothie.
41. A. have B. miss C. make D. buy
42. A. money B. time C. things D. energy
43. A. healthily B. quickly C. slowly D. politely
44. A. health B. memory C. courage D. ability
45. A. wake up B. put up C. set up D. turn up
46. A. low B. high C. small D. huge
47. A. skill B. service C. spirit D. break
48. A. later B. earlier C. more D. less
49. A. drinks B. fruits C. foods D. vegetables
50. A. agree B. teach C. believe D. advise
VII. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hello, Frank. How is your new school
B: Hello Daisy. It’s great because we have some good rules.
A: Really 51.________
B: 52.________
A: That’s a good rule. 53.________
B: Don’t be afraid to ask for help if you do not understand what the teacher just said.
A: Wow. That’s a really good rule. 54.________
B: You’re right. We all like it.
A: 55.________
B: Sure. We can’t listen to music in the classroom.
A: Well, it maybe noisy.
A. What’s next B. What are your school rules C. It can encourage students to study hard. D. That makes the teachers really unhappy. E. Are there any rules that make you unhappy F. Firstly, we should respect everyone in the class. G. Our teacher encourage to make some rule together.
第三部分阅读(共两节,满分40分)
VIII. 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Animal of the week
Four fennec fox(耳廓狐) cubs were born at the Niabi Zoo in America. Fennec foxes are the world's smallest fox species. ● LIFE SPAN: 10 years, or longer in human care ● HABITAT: Deserts of North Africa and Arabia ●SIZE: 14 to 16 inches, not including the tail ● DIET: Small animals, insects, and some plants ● FUN FACT: Fur on the soles of their feet protects them from the hot desert sand. Voters chose this shy, fishy-smelling penguin as New Zealand's bird of the year in an online contest. The hoiho(黄眼企鹅) prefers to live alone and may be the world's rarest penguin. ● LIFE SPAN: Up to 25 years ● HABITAT: Coastal forests in New Zealand ●SIZE: About 2 to 3 feet tall, 8 to 20 pounds ● DIET: Fish and squid(鱿鱼) ● FUN FACT: The yellow-eyed penguin appears on New Zealand's $5 bill.
56. Where are the four fennec foxes born
A. America. B. Africa. C. Arabia. D. New Zealand.
57. How long can a hiho live
A. Up to 10 years. B. Up to 14 years. C. Up to 16 years. D. Up to 25 years.
58. What do hoihoes usually eat
A. B. C. D.
B
It’s always a good thing to have a hobby. For Miss Patty, a school bus driver in Erie County, her hobby of knitting (编织) has made her really touch the community.
Miss Patty always wanted to do something with her spare time to help the students. After a conversation with one of the students, things took a turn from knitting one hat to knitting more hats.
“The one boy gets on the bus, and he goes ‘what are you doing ’ I said, ‘I’m making a hat. He said, ‘That would be great having such a warm hat in icy winter.’ So I said, ‘What color would you like ’ That started everything,” Miss Patty told the local newspaper.
Several years have passed since that day, and Miss Patty has already knitted 7, 083 hats for students in her spare time. Sometimes she will get the student’s favorite color before she begins the project.
What is more moving is that Miss Patty buys all the materials (材料) using her own money. Some people do give her gift cards around the holidays to help, but she still puts out a lot of her own money.
Along with making hats for the students that will keep them warm, Miss Patty also gets praise for being a trusted friend to the students.
59. What made Miss Patty decide to knit more hats
A. A drive to Erie County. B. A show of colorful hats.
C. A letter in the newspaper. D. A conversation with a boy.
60. Why does Miss Patty knit so many hats in her spare time
A. To practice her skill. B. To better her business.
C. To make more friends. D. To gift students for winter.
61. What makes Miss Patty’s act more moving
A. She refuses others’ help.
B. She buys materials with her own money.
C. She works during holidays.
D. She knits hats of different colors for kids.
62. Which of the following best describes Miss Patty
A. Humorous. B. Honest. C. Caring. D. Shy.
C
Many people store sweet Halloween chocolate bars, gummies(软糖), and candy corn. Others, however, think the fall holiday is a perfect time to enjoy a super-sour sensation(感觉). What do you think Is sweet candy better than sour candy
Yes—it's a delight to eat
The first thing people think of candy is something sweet. Candy is a special treat that lasts for a while, but sour candy is just shocking. Also, there's a wide variety of sweet candy with different ingredients(成分), ranging from fruity and fresh to chocolate, nougat(牛轧糖), and caramel(焦糖). Sour candy is more limited and pretty much only tastes one way. There are so many types of sweet candy because it's better and more people want it. It's a classic.
No—sour candy is exciting
Sour candy is more than just a flavor — it's an experience. When you pop it into your mouth, it's still a surprise for you. It's also really fun to compete with your friends to see who can handle the taste. Sure, sour candy is a flavor you have to learn to love, but it's like no other variety of treat out there. Besides, sour candy usually has at least a little bit of sweet at the end, once you get past it, so you don't have to choose one flavor or the other.
63. What kind of candies probably tastes sour
A. Nougat. B. Gummies. C. Caramel. D. Bombs.
64. Which of the following is TRUE about sour candy
A. It is a classic taste for most people. B. It has many kinds with different ingredients.
C. It may be a surprise for you to handle. D. It makes you and your friends to compete.
65. What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to (指的是)
A. The sweet taste. B. The sour taste. C. Sweet candies. D. Sour candies.
D
Mattel, the major game and toy-making company, has a new version of the classic board game, Scrabble(拼字游戏). The new version, Scrabble Together, needs more cooperation(合作) than the original.
In the new game, players can work in teams, and instead of getting the most points, the winner is the player or team that completes 20 word-related challenges. According to Mattel, the new game is more likely to appeal to Gen Z and Millennials(千禧一代), who are less competitive.
Scrabble, invented in 1938 by Alfred Mosher Butts, was originally called Criss-Crosswords. Butts was unable to sell the game to a major game company and made just a few copies. A decade later, an owner of one of those few copies saw its potential(潜力), and began producing it under the new name Scrabble, with a royalty(版税) on each unit going to Mr. Butts. The game took off in 1952 when the president of the Macy’s Department Store played the game and decided to stock(贮存) it.
The new game comes packaged together with the original version (the board is double-sided), and it is currently available outside of the United States and Canada. Because the rights for the game of Scrabble are held by Hasbro in the two countries, Mattel cannot sell the new version there.
66. How can players win in Scrabble Together
A. Get the most points. B. Complete 20 word-related challenges.
C. Find the most teammates. D. Complete 20 word puzzles first.
67. When did people begin to produce Scrabble
A. In 1938. B. In 1942. C. In 1948. D. In 1952.
68. What does the underlined phase “took off” in paragraph 3 mean
A. Leave a place. B. Take away. C. Stop working. D. Become popular.
69. Where can you probably buy a copy of the new game
A. In New York. B. In Toronto. C. In England. D. In Washington DC.
E
Light pollution(光污染) happens when too much man-made light harms nature and people. It has far-reaching effects on wildlife, disrupting(扰乱) animal behavior, especially nocturnal(夜间的) animals.
Many animals, including bats, owls, and amphibians(两栖动物) rely on darkness for hunting and breeding(生育). Light pollution turns night into day, confusing these species and reducing their ability to find food or mates. Frogs, for example, depend on nighttime to attract mates, and artificial lights can disrupt this behavior, leading to a decline in populations.
Birds that migrate(迁徙) at night use the moon and stars to help. Artificial light from cities can cause them to become disoriented(分不清方向的). Millions of birds die each year due to this matter. Light pollution can also cause birds to migrate too early or too late, disrupting their breeding and feeding cycles.
Sea turtles are among the species most affected by light pollution. Baby sea turtles use the natural light horizon over the ocean to find their way to the sea. However, artificial lights on beaches can mislead them, causing them to move away from the ocean and die.
70. What animal doesn't depend on darkness for hunting
A. Bats. B. Owls. C. Frogs. D. Turtles.
71. Which of the following is NOT true according to the text
A. Artificial light make the birds hard to find the right way.
B. Light pollution can make birds migrate too early or too late.
C. Many birds die because the light make them to hit the walls.
D. Artificial lights makes baby turtles lost their way and die.
72. Which can be the best title for the passage
A. What do animals do during night B. Where do animals go during night
C. How does light pollution take place D. How light pollution affects animals
第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
F
Alina, a ten-year-old pupil from Dewsbury in England had a wonderful year. She interviewed(采访) author Jacqueline Wilson; met Poet Laureate Simon Armitage; visited Bradford and London; and read a poem on stage at this year's Convention of the North, a big event in Leeds, England.
She did all this after being named one of the two West Yorkshire Young Poet Laureates. The laureates(桂冠诗人) aims to inspire(鼓励) other young poets and writers by attending exciting events and sharing their poetry.
To be in with a chance of being named West Yorkshire Young Poet Laureate, Alina had to write a poem and enter it into a competition. Her winning piece, called Mr Callaghan's Class, was about her school classroom.
Alina had only ever written a tiny bit of poetry before then but she was thirsty to give it a go. "I thought it was a fun competition and a fun idea, and lots of my friends were doing it, so I thought I would do it," she said. "Also, I like to try out for new things, like head girl, swimming ..." Her advice to young people who want to write poetry is simple: “Think creative, express yourself, and keep writing."
73. How do the laureates inspire other young poets and writers (不超过10个词)
________________________________
74. What is Alina’s winning poem about (不超过5个词)
________________________________
75. Why does Alina want to try in the West Yorkshire Young Poet Laureate (不超过10个词)
________________________________
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示, 完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
76. Sharks are huge and grey with large fins, and they usually look s___________ (吓人的).
77. The English club is a good c___________ (选择) for anybody that enjoys learning English.
78. Zhalong Nature Park is a p___________ (完美的) place for some rare (稀有的) birds.
79. People who get up early have a head start and are more likely to s___________ (成功).
80. On cold winter days we can stay warm with g___________ (手套), coats and jackets.
X. 书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
81. 假设你是李华,你们学校正在举行以“Good Living Habits”主题的征文比赛。请你按照以下提示及要求写一篇不少于80词的英语短文投稿,谈谈良好的生活习惯对你的积极影响。
内容提示:
要求:
1. 不得使用真实的姓名和学校名;
2. 短文须包括提示里的所有要点,可适当发挥。
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———————————————————————————————————————参考答案:
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
1-5 CAABC 6-10 BBCBA 11-15 ABBAB
16. twice 17. Popular 18. enjoy 19. fans 20. schools
第二部分语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
21-25 AACBD 26-30DBACC
VI. 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
31-35 CBCBD 36-40 AABBD 41-45 BDABA 46-50 ACBCD
VII. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
51-55 BFACE
第三部分阅读(共两节,满分40分)
VIII. 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
56-60 ADD 61-65 DCB 66-70BCDCD 71-72CD
第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
73. By attending exciting events and sharing their poetry.
74. About her school classroom.
75. Because she likes to try out for new things./Because it was a fun competition and a fun idea.
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
76. scary 77. choice 78. perfect 79. succeed 80. gloves
X. 书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
One possible version:
My name is Li Hua. As for me, I have balanced eating habits. I usually have milk, eggs and bread for breakfast. Sometimes, I also have some fruit. For lunch, I often eat meat, vegetables and rice. For dinner, I love eating some fish and noodles.
I have healthy living habits as well. I never stay up late and usually sleep for 9 hours every night. I think a good sleep helps me start a new day. I get up early in the morning. After that, I do exercise for 20 minutes. At weekends, I often play basketball with my friends or go climbing with my family.
I believe it is important to have good habits because they make me happy.
听力原文
第一部分 听力(共四大题, 满分20分)
I. 短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
1. M: What animals do you like, Emma
W:Well, I like elephants and penguins. But Pandas are my favourite. They are so cute.
2. M: Hi, Helen. Do you have to clean your bedroom every day
W: No, I needn’t. But I have to make my bed and wash the dishes after dinner.
3. W: Hi, Mike! Did you go anywhere special on the weekend
M: No, I just went swimming. I go swimming once a week to keep fit.
4. W: What are your eating habits, Tony
M: I eat meat three times a week, but I never eat vegetables.
W: Really I’m afraid it’s a bit unhealthy.
5. W: Here we are. What animals do you want to see first
M: Can we see the monkeys first They’re so funny and cute. You must like them.
II. 长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
6-7
W: Hi, Jack! Welcome to the Art Museum. Do you have any questions
M: I want to know about Chinese traditional art. Where can I find them
W: On the fifth floor.
M: OK. Are there any rules I should follow
W: Sure. You could use your camera but don’t use it with flash lights.
M: I won’t. I know it’s not good for these works.
W: Do remember not to smoke here.
M: Of course I will not.
W: OK. Let’s go.
8-10
M: What do you have for breakfast, Jane
W: I usually have some milk, bread, eggs and some vegetables. What about you, Peter
M: Your breakfast is healthy. I only have some milk and snacks. And I usually go to school without breakfast.
W: Too many snacks are bad for you. Why don’t you have breakfast in the morning
M: Because I often plays computer games late and can’t get up on time.
W: I think you should change your lifestyle.
M: You are right. I will start from today and try to go to bed early.
W: And don’t forget your breakfast. It can give us enough energy in the morning.
M: OK, I will. Thank you so much.
III. 短文理解(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
11-15
Hello, everyone! I’m a worker of Beijing Zoo. Now let me tell you something about animal shows in our zoo.
At 9:00 in the morning, you can watch the panda show. Pandas are so lovely, right The monkey show is one hour later. It’s from 10:00 to 11:00. The monkeys here are very clever. Monkeys are one of my favourite animals, so I am interested in the monkey show. After that, you can have lunch in our zoo. There is much delicious food in our restaurants. In the afternoon, we have the elephant show. I think you will love it too. Then we have the giraffe show. Giraffes have long necks but there are only 7 bones in them. Isn’t it amazing! Please remember the time of the shows and have fun in our zoo!
IV. 信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
There is a saying, “No sports, no life.” Sports are very important to us. Sports help us to keep fit and get good grades. Everyone in our class loves sports. We only have PE lessons twice a week, but we play sports every day. The most popular sport in our class is basketball. The boys enjoy playing it, and many of the girls like it, too. Another popular sport is football and there are a lot of football fans in our class. When the weather is fine, we often play basketball and football in the sports field. We have a basketball team and a football team. Our team often has friendship games with teams from other schools. When there is a game, many of us go to watch it. It’s very interesting.

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