浙江省温州市苍南县2024-2025七年级上学期期末测试英语试题(含答案含听力音频无原文)

苍南县2024学年第一学期期末教学诊断性测试
七年级英语试题卷
温馨提示:本卷由试题卷和答题卷两部分组成,满分100分,其中包含答题卷书写卷面分5分。所有答案都必须写在答题卷相应的位置上,写在试题卷上无效。请仔细审题,细心答题。
卷Ⅰ
一、听力(本题有15小题,第一、二节每小题1分,第三节每小题2分,共20分)
第一节:听小对话,请从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题,每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What are in Lucy’s hand
A.Some seeds. B.Some leaves. C.Some flowers.
2.Who is Lily’s hero
A.Her mother. B.Her father. C.Her teacher.
3.What did Jane do this afternoon
A.Planted trees. B.Played the guitar. C.Watched birds.
4.What does Sarah think of the film
A.Touching. B.Interesting. C.Difficult.
5.Why can’t Jack’s mum pick him up tomorrow
A.Because she is busy. B.Because she is ill. C.Because she is tired.
第二节:听长对话,请从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题,每段对话读两遍。听第一段对话,回答第6-7小题。
6.What is Susan doing
A.Reading a book. B.Writing a story. C.Writing a report.
7.Where are they going tomorrow
A.To the library. B.To the museum. C.To the zoo.
听第二段对话,回答第8-10小题。
8.What food does the boy like best
A.The fish. B.The meatballs. C.The turkey.
9.Where is the boy now
A.In the UK. B.In Australia. C.In America.
10.What will Kate tell the boy after dinner
A.The food for the festival.
B.The history of the festival.
C.The activities during the festival.
第三节:听独白,请根据内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题,独白读两遍。
11.When does Hu Bin start to have classes
A.At 7 am. B.At 8 am. C.At 9 am.
12.How many classes does Hu Bin have every day
A.Two. B.Four. C.Six.
13.Which is Hu Bin’s favorite subject
A.English. B.P. E. C.Music.
14.Where does Hu Bin draw pictures with his friends
A.In the classroom. B.In the park. C.In the library.
15.How is Hu Bin’s school life
A.Interesting. B.Peaceful. C.Surprising.
二、阅读理解(本题有10小题,每小题各2分,共20分)
阅读下面短文,从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Shadow Play Do you want to see Monkey King flying in light Come and enjoy the shadow plays at Longtan Park. There will be many interesting stories. Don’t wait! Time: 8 pm-10 pm
New Year Paintings They are a part of our traditional art with bright colors and beautiful patterns(图案). Come to Longtan Park! It’s a good idea to buy some colorful paintings to decorate your house. Time:9 am-5 pm
Dragon and Lion Dance It’s more than just a dance! Chinese people think it can bring good luck. Watching this exciting show is a must during the festival. There will be “dragons” and “lions” dancing and jumping along Renmin Road. Time:10 am-1 pm
16.When can you watch the dragon dance
A.At 9 am on Monday. B.At 11 am on Wednesday.
C.At 5 pm on Friday. D.At 10 pm on Sunday.
17.Which of the following is TRUE
A.Dragon and lion dance is just a dance.
B.The temple fair will last(持续)for 5 days.
C.New Year paintings are always black and white.
D.Kids can enjoy interesting stories in shadow plays.
18.What’s the type(类型)of the passage
A.A letter. B.A story. C.A poster. D.A note.
B
Try to think about it: you sit down and begin to eat a tomato. Suddenly, it screams(尖叫)! Just like humans, plants have ways to show they’re not okay.
Scientists did a study. They used special microphones(麦克风)to hear the sounds of tomato plants in three groups.
Group 1: No water Group 2: Stems cut off Group 3: Stay as it is(保持原状)
Then they checked the three groups. Groups 1 and 2 made sounds 30 to 50 times(次数)an hour, but Group 3 was quiet. “Quiet tomatoes are not nervous,” said Hadany from the study team. He also listened to potatoes and corn, and found they made sounds, too.
Who listens to these sounds Scientists think that animals may hear the sounds. For example, the sound can tell animals which plant is safe. And some animals can choose which plant to eat by the sounds.
Scientists say that this study will help farmers. They can take better care of the crops(农作物)by “hearing” how they feel.
19.What did scientists find by hearing the sounds of tomato plants
A.Plants in Groups 1 and 2 were happy. B.The plant in Group 3 was not nervous.
C.All plants in three groups made sounds. D.People can hear the sounds of plants easily.
20.What does the underlined word “they” in Paragraph 3 refer to(指代)
A.Tomato plants. B.Potatoes and corn.
C.Some animals. D.Hadany and other scientists.
21.How will the sounds of plants help animals or farmers
A.They will make animals feel relaxed. B.They will make farmers laugh happily.
C.They will help animals hide themselves. D.They will help farmers grow healthy crops.
C
After a long holiday, Ava was worried about going back to school and making new friends again.
“How about taking your stuffed animal(毛绒玩具)to school It’s your best friend.” Ava’s mom asked. Ava loved the idea very much.
On the first day, Ava was a little nervous. Then she took out her favourite bear, Teddy, and hugged it. That made her feel better. After class, Ava saw a boy called Lucas play with a stuffed dog.
“What’s its name ” Ava walked to the boy and asked.
“He is my friend Bingo. He makes me feel safe at school.” Lucas answered politely.
After that, Ava often played with Lucas and they became best friends. Soon, they started the Stuffed Animal Club at school. And many kids joined the club. They meet on Mondays to share stories. Sometimes, they play games together. It’s so much fun!
Now Ava and Lucas want to help more kids. They are going to give stuffed animals to the kids in hospital next week. All the club friends are excited about this meaningful idea!
22.What’s Ava’s problem after a long holiday
A.Her new friends didn’t like her. B.She didn’t finish her homework.
C.She worried about making friends. D.Her mother was angry with her.
23.Why did Ava take her teddy bear to school on the first day
A.Because all her classmates had stuffed animals.
B.Because she didn’t want to make friends at school.
C.Because the teddy bear made her feel better at school.
D.Because she wanted to join the Stuffed Animal Club.
24.Which of the following is the correct order(顺序)of the story
a. Ava made friends with a boy.
b. Ava took her teddy bear to school.
c. Ava plans to give stuffed animals to the kids in hospital.
d. Ava and Lucas started the Stuffed Animal Club at school.
A.b-a-d-c B.a-b-c-d C.b-c-a-d D.a-c-b-d
25.What’s the best title of the passage
A.Ava and Her Friends. B.Ava and Her Mother.
C.Ava’s Club Problem. D.Ava’s School Plan.
三、完形填空(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读下面短文,掌握大意,然后从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Sunday 12 Jan
Today is my birthday and I get an unusual 26 from my sister.
This morning, I was 27 in my room. Busy with my homework, I didn’t talk to my sister when she came in. However, when I finished, I was 28 to see a drawing on my notebook! It looked messy(凌乱的), so I shouted at her 29 , “You’ re a trouble maker(捣蛋鬼)! I don’t like you!” After that, she cried, with tears running down her 30 .She tried to say something, 31 I didn’t want to listen.
Later, Dad asked me to 32 the drawing carefully. I did, and then saw a note- “Happy Birthday.” Suddenly, I felt so sorry for my sister. 33 love was like a warm hug, but I pushed(推)it away. I said sorry to her and she 34 me in her arms.
I get many gifts today, but I think my sister’s is the best. It makes me realize(意识到)that my warm and loving family is 35 there for me.
26.A.gift B.card C.cake D.letter
27.A.singing B.drawing C.studying D.sleeping
28.A.happy B.shocked C.thankful D.nervous
29.A.angrily B.politely C.kindly D.sadly
30.A.leg B.hair C.hand D.face
31.A.so B.but C.or D.because
32.A.give up B.point out C.cut down D.look at
33.A.My B.His C.Her D.Its
34.A.tapped B.shook C.kissed D.hugged
35.A.always B.sometimes C.seldom D.never
四、情景交际(本题有5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
请根据对话内容,从A-F选项中选择正确的句子补全对话,完成36-40题,使对话通顺、完整。注意有一个选项多余。
Amy: Excuse me. I’m doing a research about after-school activities. 36
Stephen: Of course.
Amy: 37
Stephen: I usually finish my homework first and then do some sports.
Amy: 38
Stephen: Oh, I like playing ping-pong best. I always play it on Mondays and Thursdays.
Amy: I see. 39
Stephen: Yes, I also like going for a walk in the park after dinner. It can help me get close to nature.
Amy: 40 Thank you for your sharing.
A.Sounds great. B.I’m not sure about that. C.Can I ask you some questions D.What kind of sports do you like best E.What do you usually do after school F.Do you have any other after-school activities
卷Ⅱ
五、词汇运用(本题有15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
A.根据加点字母的发音规则和图片信息,用相应单词的正确形式完成句子。
41.The kite flies to the sky and will fall on the ________.
42.We are talking and laughing at the class ________ now.
43.The little dogs always follows the ________ slowly.
44.A panda is eating ________ happily.
45.She takes a grey ________ to school.
B.根据短文内容和所给中文提示,用单词的正确形式完成短文。
My favourite hobby is playing drums. I spend much time on it and I 46 (很,十分)enjoy playing drums.
When I was 12 years old, my 47 (父母)bought me a drum set. I began my 48 (练习)every day after school. At first, I played badly, and the sound was scary. I started to 49 (后悔;对…感到遗憾). But with the 50 (支持)from my family, I got the hope again and began to find much joy in this hobby.
Now, I play in my school 51 (乐队,乐团)with my friend. Dan. We work 52 (一起,共同)and give shows on the stage. When watching. 53 (每个人)dances to our music. We 54 (成为,变成)the stars in our school. I have to say, I have an 55 (惊人的;了不起的)hobby!
六、语法填空(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
阅读下面短文,用适当的单词或所给单词的适当形式完成短文。
Hobbies make our lives more colorful. They help us 56 (relax). After a busy day, spending time on a hobby 57 (usual)makes us happy. For example, reading a good book helps us get away from our 58 (problem).
Hobbies also help us learn. If we like 59 (take)photos, we will learn new knowledge about it. Also, hobbies like gardening can teach 60 (we)about plants. We can not only learn about how to take care of them, 61 also get beautiful flowers.
What’s more, hobbies help us making friends. When we join 62 club or group, we meet new people. Often, our interests may be like 63 (they)interests. When we play basketball 64 our teammates, strong friendships grow.
There 65 (be)many benefits of having hobbies. So let’s get some hobbies and have a good time!
七、连词成句(本题有5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
根据对应的图片及所给的标点符号,将所给的单词组成正确的句子。
66.67.68.69.70.
66.ride, my, bike, will, I, tomorrow(.)
67.cutting, a, Chef Wang, is, cucumber(.)
68.notebook, the, is, yours( )
69.many, are, there, lovers, Beijing Opera(.)
70.are, when, going, we, to, meet( )
八、书面表达(本题共10分)
大自然里有各种各样神奇的动物,有些是人类的好朋友,有些是人类的好帮手,有些需要人类的帮助。本周是“我爱动物”英语文化周,请为学校展板推选一种展示的动物,并为其撰写讲解稿。
要求:(1)文中须包含下图要点,可适当拓展;
(2)文中不能出现真实学校、班级、姓名等信息;
(3)词数60词左右,首句已给单词不计入总词数。
Let me introduce the ________ on the display board. ____________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
苍南县2024学年第一学期期末教学诊断性测试
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
Part 1参考答案
一、听力部分(本题有15小题,第一、二节每小题1分,第三节每小题2分,共20分)
1—5 ABCBA 6-10CBCAB 11—15 BCABA
二、阅读理解(本题有10小题,每小题各2分,共20分)
16—20BDCBB 21—25 DCCAA
三、完形填空(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
26—30ACBAD 31—35 BDCDA
四、情景交际(本题有5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
36—40 CEDFA
五、词汇运用(本题有15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
41.island 42.party 43.postman 44.bamboo 45.eraser
46.really 47.parents 48.practice 49.regret 50.support
51.band 52.together 53.everyone 54.become 55.amazing/ everybody
六、语法填空(本题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
56.(to)relax 57.usually 58.problems 59.totake/taking 60.us
61.but 62.a 63.their 64.with 65.are
七、连词成句(本题有5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
66.I will ride my bike tomorrow./ Tomorrow I will ride my bike.
67.Chef Wang is cutting a cucumber.
68.Is the notebook yours
69.There are many Beijing Opera lovers.
70.When are we going to meet
八、书面表达(本题共10分)
参考范文:
Let me introduce the panda on the display board. Pandas are black and white. They are very cute. They live in the forests. They like eating bamboo. Pandas are good at climbing trees. They can also swim. But pandas are in danger, because people cut forests in the past. So they need people’s help. In my opinion, pandas are amazing and they are our friends. Let’s try our best to protect pandas and their forests.

延伸阅读:

标签:

上一篇:广东省广州市(人教版)2024第二学期三年级数学第1-2单元练习卷(含答案和答题卷)

下一篇:北京市顺义区2024-2025七年级上学期期末考试数学试题(word版含答案)