湖北省武汉市硚口区2024-2025九年级上学期1月期末考试英语试卷(含答案无听力音频及原文)

武汉市硚口区2024-2025学年九年级上学期1月期末考试英语试卷
2025. 1. 16
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题 共 80 分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共 5 小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后,你都有 5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Pop music. B. My teacher. C. On Tuesday.
2. A. At 9: 30. B. In the bank. C. Mozart.
3. A. With Alice. B. Jim’s. C. It’s green.
4. A. From the bookstore. B. Very cheap. C. Good idea.
5. A. It’s big. B. I’d love to. C. For half a year.
第二节 (共 7 小题,每小题 1 分,满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. Where is the bookstore
A. Behind the bank. B. Across from the bank. C. Beside the bank.
7. When does the boy practice playing the violin
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
8. How did the boy feel at last
A. He felt worried. B. He felt excited. C. He felt scared.
9. What was Sue like in the past
A. Shy. B. Outgoing. C. Friendly.
10. Who is the inventor of the robot
A. The science teacher. B. The computer teacher. C. The librarian.
11. What will the speakers take with them
A. Train tickets. B. Some photos. C. Smart phones.
12. Which of the following university does the girl want to enter
A. B. C.
第三节 (共 13 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 13 分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间,每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答 13 至 15 三个小题。
13. Who did the boy go shopping with yesterday
A. Jack. B. Linda. C. His mother.
14. Which of the following things did the boy do first
A. Did homework. B. Went shopping. C. Had dinner.
15. Where will the boy and his mother go
A. To Linda’s home. B. To the shopping center. C. To the KFC.
听下面一段对话,回答 16 至 18 三个小题。
16. What is the man interested in
A. Music. B. Sports. C. Art.
17. What does the woman want to do
A. Draw pictures. B. Take photos. C. Sing modern songs.
18. When will the speakers probably meet
A. 9: 45. B. 10: 10. C. 10: 30.
听下面一段对话,回答19至21三个小题。
19. What will Mary do on Volunteer Day
A. To cheer the sick kids up. B. To work as a doctor. C. To help the old in hospital.
20. What would Mike do tomorrow
A. Cleaning up the parks. B. Visiting the hospital. C. Helping the police.
21. What day is it today
A. Friday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.
听下面一段独白,回答 22 至 25 四个小题。
22. Why did the Tang people welcome the Lion Dance
A. Because they liked lions best. B. Because they were good at hunting.
C. Because they thought lions brought good luck.
23. What is the most important for the Lion Dance
A. Music. B. Costumes. C. Skill.
24. Which place is famous for the Lion Dance
A. Haikou. B. Foshan. C. Guangzhou.
25. What can be learned from the text
A. The creator of the lion dance. B. The history of The Lion Dance.
C. The origin story of the Lion Dance.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。
26. —Don’t you think Han Meimei is the best singer around the world
— ____________ Li Hua is.
A. I agree. B. I don’t know. C. Oh, really D. You’re kidding!
27. —Grandma, was your life very difficult when you were a kid
—Oh, ____________. My family had several modern inventions.
A. of course it was B. not really C. it depended D. I hope so
28. —Ms. Luo, I’ll worry I’m falling behind if I stop staying up late to study more.
—Take your time! As we know Rome ____________ in a day!
A. didn’t build B. is built C. wasn’t built D. build
29. —I would be an artist if I hadn’t given up painting to learn medicine.
—There is no “if’ in life and every ____________ has its meaning.
A. course B. mistake C. agreement D. choice
30. —Why did Alice refuse to work with her classmates as a team
—Because she thought ____________ of them could match her.
A. none B. nobody C. any D. neither
31. —Class, what does growing —up mean to you
—As for me, it’s a ____________ but joyful process with ups and downs.
A. accidental B. painful C. smooth D. successful
32. —Lily, how do you get used to more schoolwork and less spare time
—These challenging changes have taught me how to ____________ my time better.
A. manage B. kill C. cost D. lose
33. —Do you think the person you saw at the party is Susan
—I ____________ it because she was at work at that moment.
A. recall B. mention C. attend D. doubt
34. —More and more people are on a diet to lose weight.
—But most of them ____________ putting more back on.
A. cut up B. end up C. take up D. look up
35. —The idiom “Save for a rainy day!” tells us ____________.
A. when can people prepare for the future B. why should people save money
C. how important planning for the future is D. what people do on a rainy day
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Three years ago, my husband and I started the “Farm Camp” program. We wanted city kids to 36 what we had enjoyed and learned on our family farm. We host one or two families at a time. Most of them come for a week. Every morning, I take the kids through a two-hour hands-on farm class.
There is a lot to learn. For example, I don’t 37 a child to know how long it takes for a chick to hatch (孵化) . But I’m often 38 when they don’t know how to climb over a gate.
Don’t get me 39 . I love educating kids and then cheering them on when they manage to do these simple tasks 40 . It’s just that, two generations ago, these skills were 41 knowledge. It’s hard for city kids today to get to 42 real tools or take on tough chores. These can be unpleasant and even 43 , so it’s understandable that parents want to keep their children away from them. The 44 is, when they do, something essential (必需的) is lost.
The same is true when it comes to a more 45 topic. In the beginning, I didn’t talk about death with the visitors. But my own kids, now 20 and 25, had 46 the death of their beloved farm animals, so I 47 that the “Farm Camp” kids can do the same. Now I just tell them that the piglets will end up as bacon (培根) .
Farms can also be 48 . We’ve never had a serious injury (损伤) ; but countless kids have been stung by bees, pecked by a chicken, or kicked to the ground by a naughty pony. Children are often 49 than we think.
At first, I was worried the chores would bore my young visitors, but much to my surprise, the opposite is true. They find the chores fun. When they come for 50 visits, as so many do, they eagerly (急切地) ask me, “When do we get to shovel (铲) the poop ”
36. A. experience B. treat C. collect D. discover
37. A. hope B. wish C. allow D. expect
38. A. surprised B. polite C. patient D. confident
39. A. calm B. wrong C. angry D. sad
40. A. badly B. luckily C. independently D. honestly
41. A. common B. secret C. perfect D. special
42. A. realize B. produce C. invent D. touch
43. A. beautiful B. painful C. joyful D. successful
44. A. purpose B. reason C. problem D. decision
45. A. serious B. relaxing C. comfortable D. unhealthy
46. A. carried B. lost C. missed D. faced
47. A. doubted B. believed C. admired D. regretted
48. A. difficult B. nervous C. dangerous D. energetic
49. A. stronger B. poorer C. busier D. faster
50. A. valuable B. anxious C. famous D. return
四、阅读理解 (共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
On Dec 4, UNESCO made China’s Spring Festival a world intangible cultural heritage (非遗). As China’s oldest and most important traditional festival, Spring Festival helps bring the Chinese people together and makes them feel proud of their own culture, UNESCO said. The festival is also loved by other countries. About one in every five people around the world celebrates the festival. New students at Sungkyunkwan University (成均馆大学) in eoul South Korea, wear traditional clothes and take part in the Myeonsinrye event. It is a yearly event to welcome new students. The university was built in 1398 to teach people about Confucian (儒家的) ideas. Now, the university still has a special department for teaching Confucian ideas. The university is one of the best On Dec 14, Deventer in the Netherlands (荷兰) became a magical world! People here celebrated the Dickens (狄更斯) Festival. More than 950 people wore special clothes to take part in it. They brought the characters from Charles Dickens’ books to life. This festival let more people meet the characters from his books, such as Oliver Twist and Scrooge. It drew about 100, 000 people from around the world.
51. In which section of the newspaper can we read the news
A. Culture B. Environment C. Transportation D. Technology
52. What does it mean that the Spring Festival has become a world intangible cultural heritage
A. UNESCO is a fair organization.
B. Children’s favorite is Spring Festival.
C. Spring Festival is widely welcomed by the world.
D. Chinese people should get together on Spring Festival.
53. What is Myeonsinrye event about
A. Great ideas of Confucians. B. A public lesson on smartphones.
C. An activity for new students. D. A talent show about traditional clothes.
54. What can we see during the Dickens Festival
A. Shakespeare’s famous plays. B. Chinese dragon dance performance.
C. About 100, 000 people from China, D. The characters from Dickens’ books.
55. What do the above pictures relate to
A. Chinese traditions. B. Special clothes.
C. Wonderful education. D. Modern technology.
B
In our daily lives, we often follow the same routines (日常作息): getting up, going to school or work, eating, and going to bed. Sounds familiar But what if something unusual or unexpected happens That’s what I experienced one evening in April 2024 on my way home from work.
As I was riding my bike home in the evening, I saw a big dirty dog with orange and white fur. It looked sad and lost, simply sitting in the middle of the road by a pedestrian crossing (入行横道). It seemed unsure of what to do as it lay down and stared at the passing traffic. Nobody seemed to mind the dog either, only passing him by at a distance.
At first, I also crossed over to the other side, hoping that somebody else would care for the dog. But, realizing that the dog might suddenly get up and walk into traffic, I decided I must do something to help the dog.
★ I saw my opportunity. I used my bike to guide the dog to a street corner, blocking
the way to keep it safe from passing cars. Slowly but surely, I was able to encourage the dog to keep walking until finally, we both made it to the sidewalk. I messaged a dog shelter (收容所) group to let them know about the dog’s whereabouts. Yet, by the time I turned to it again, the dog was gone.
Sometimes we don’t know what we will find or see in our daily lives. Still, what matters is how we react to them. Despite (尽管) how shy I normally am in these situations, I am glad I found the courage to help a dog in need, even if just for a moment.
56. What unusual event did the writer experience on his way home
A. Falling off his bike unexpectedly. B. Seeing a guide dog for the first time.
C. Giving a hand at a traffic accident. D. Helping a homeless dog on the road.
57. How did the writer react at the first sight of the dog
A. He passed it without minding much. B. He-tried to guide the dog to safety.
C. He called a dog shelter for help at once. D. He watched the dog crossing the road.
58. Why did the writer use his bike to block the way
A. To stop cars getting too close. B. To warn passers-by not to get close.
C. To hold the dog for the light change. D. To prevent the dog from walking away.
59. Which sentence of the following can be put into ★
A. To stop the cars behind B. When the light changed
C. Suddenly, my bike was broken D. Before the dog stood up
60. What does the writer want to tell us with his experience
A. Be calm for unexpected events. B. It takes courage to help animals.
C. Take action even if others do not. D. Be brave to look for help in hard times.
C
As a child, I didn’t like Peking Opera. In my eyes, it was boring. The actors sang and spoke in strange ways and their clothes looked “ancient.” That was until last year, when I saw a video of an actress singing pop songs in a Peking Opera style. I started thinking the traditional art form was really cool.
My story might help explain why the new C-drama Love Game in Eastern Fantasy (《永夜星河》) is so popular among young people, both at home and abroad. Although the show is set in ancient times, it develops in a game-like way. The female lead Ling Miaomiao finds herself inside a fantasy novel. To get back to the real world, she must finish many tasks. When I first saw her struck by lightning (被雷击中) ---and the words “The End” appear on the screen---I laughed out loud. It felt like I was playing a game myself!
The drama also uses modern language. Ling sometimes says things like “What Did I break the law “ or “How much did these special effects (特效) cost “ These words fit the character and add fun to the show.
This show is an example of pop culture’s role in spreading Chinese culture. The Global Times ( 《环球时报》) calls online novels, online dramas and online games the “three carriages (三驾马车)” of this effort. The key is to interest young people first. If they are curious (好奇) , they will want to learn more. Now, people are talking about the traditional skills behind the props (道具) in Love Game in Eastern Fantasy. They are also learning more about Chinese folk stories like Shanhaijing because of the show. This is the power of pop culture.
61. What changed the writer’s view about Peking Opera
A. The ways of actors sang and spoke.
B. The ancient clothes of the performers.
C. A cool video of an actress singing pop songs.
D. A C-drama named Love Game in Eastern Fantasy.
62. Why does the writer begin the article with his Peking Opera story
A. To tell readers the traditional art form was really cool.
B. To encourage the readers to enjoy more Peking Operas.
C. To share his real opinions about pop culture with readers.
D. To show how pop culture helped make him interested in Peking Opera.
63. What is the special of Love Game in Eastern Fantasy, according to the writer
A. The special effects cost too much.
B. The show develops in a game-like way.
C. The stories behind the props are so cool.
D. The animals in Shanhaijing have come back to life.
64. The show’s use of modern language helps to ____________.
A. interest young people B. learn much culture from it
C. make the lines more beautiful D. understand traditional culture easier
65. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage
A. The Power of Pop Culture B. Three Carriages of Pop Culture
C. Peking Opera’s New Style D. A Popular C-drama About Folk Stories
第II 卷 (非选择题 共 40 分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5 小题,每小题 2分,满分 10分)
阅读下面短文,用方框中所给的单词或短语填空,使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。 (提示:方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
Shopping with your dog can be fun. But what if the store doesn’t ____________ (66) furry friends A dog parking lot might come in handy (派上用场) (Or can we just call it a “barking lot” )
In Shanghai’s Xuhui district, dog parking has been ____________ (67) near a shopping mall. This is to allow pet owners to shop more freely.
The dog parking space has an apple-shaped structure (结构) with three bone-shaped handles (把手). Owners can tie their pets to the handles for a moment while shopping.
The pet parking area was heatedly ____________ (68) online. Some people praised Shanghai for its pet-friendly environment. Others, however, had ____________ (69). They said that dogs might fight with each other. There’s also the risk of dogs going ____________ (70). A storekeeper explained that staff in the shop would help look after pets if needed.
六、综合填空 (共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文,根据上下文或括号内单词等提示,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
A few years ago, I went to Sao Paulo for the birthday of my friend, Lincoln. The days there were a ____________ (71) (wonder) experience of Brazilian hospitality (好客). It was like nothing I’d ever ____________ (72) (feel) before.
The night before we went to the Rio Carnival, I went to Popeyes for some fried chicken. The guy at the counter (收银台) only spoke Portuguese and I didn’t quite understand him. A middle-aged man noticed my ____________ (73) (difficult) and tried to help me, though he only spoke Portuguese, too. Then, a younger guy, Jonathan, also came to help. He spoke English. We ended up ____________ (74) (talk) and eating together. Soon, a group of young people came to sit next to us. We struck up a friendship right away. After a while, we even went to a street party nearby together.
____________ (75) the trip, I also made friends with some of Lincoln’s friends. Henrique and Camila invited me ____________ (76) (stay) with them for a weekend. They took me around the neighborhood ____________ (77) introduced me to more of their friends. Luis, a lover of cooking, even arranged a ramen (拉面) night for me. It was crazy. Can you imagine ____________ (78) Brazilian making ramen at home
Brazilians have a way of making you feel at home. They include you in their plans even if they have only known you for ten minutes. They share their ____________ (79) (life) with you, and really want to know about you. I was lucky to have found the ____________ (80) (kind) souls in the world.
七、书面表达 (共1大题,满分20分)
“All work and no play makes Jack a dull boy.”这句话表达了劳逸结合、张弛有度才能提升工作或学习的效率。请根据以下内容提示,用英文谈谈你如何在学习之余放松身心,做到劳逸结合,你还希望得到父母或老师怎样的理解与支持,
内容提示:
What do you do to relax when you finish your homework
Do you think you have a balanced lifestyle between study and play
What do you think you should be allowed to do to have a meaningful relaxation
Something more about it.
注意:文中不得透露个人真实信息;篇幅 100 词左右;开头已给出,不计入总词数。
As I entered the third year of junior high, I realized it’s important to have a balanced lifestyle. ___________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
九年级 英语试卷 参考答案
2025. 1. 16
一、听力测试 (每小题1分,满分25分)
1-5. ACBAC 6-10. CABAB 11-15. CABAC 16-20. CBAAC 21-25. BCCBB
二、选择填空 (本题共10分,每小题1分)
26-30. DBCDA 31-35. BADBC
三、完形填空 (本题共15分,每小题1分)
36-40. ADABC 41-45. ADBCA 46-50. DBCAD
四、阅读理解 (本题共30分,每小题2分)
51-55. ACCDB 56-60. DAABC 61-65. CDBAA
五、词与短语选择填空 (本题共10分,每小题2分)
66. allow 67. set up 68. discussed 69. worries 70. missing
六、综合填空 (本题共 10 分,每小题 1 分)
71. wonderful 72. felt 73. difficulty 74. talking 75. During
76. to stay 77. and 78. a 79. lives 80. kindest
七、书面表达 (本大题 20 分)
As I entered the third year of junior high, I realized it’s important to have a balanced lifestyle. Although I have to spend more time on schoolwork as the subjects get harder, I still need to play and relax to keep active and energetic after I finish my homework. I love listening to music that I can sing along with. Also, doing sports like playing basketball can make me happier and healthier. (On weekends 1 prefer to watch a comedy with my friends when I’m tired from hard work or sad for dropping scores. ) After meaningful relaxation, I can always feel less tired and focus more attention on my studies. So I try to balance my study and play, but sometimes I need to be understood by my parents and teachers. I think I should be allowed to manage my own life-I’m not a child after all.
阅卷时请大家执行中考标准!
档次 得分 评卷维度标准
内容切题,准确表达观点;结构合理,表意流畅;无人称、时态问题,基第五档 17~20分 本无句式和拼写等错误:书写整洁、整齐、清晰。这一档需要关注
丰富性、多样性、文学性。
内容切题,能够表达观点;结构完整,表意清晰;无人称、时态问题,少第四档 13~16分 量句式和拼写等错误:书写整洁、整齐、清晰。
内容相关,尝试表达观点:结构缺失,表意模糊:有人称、时态问题,句第三档 9~12 分 式和拼写错误影响表意;书写不太规范。
第二档 5~8 分 内容相关,试图用句子表意;各个维度都有问题,书写不规范。
有少量相关词汇或抄写内容提示问题得4分。抄写无关内容可评为第一档 0~4 分 零分。

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