山东省德州市德城区2024-2025七年级上学期期末考试英语试题(含答案、听力原文及音频)

2024—2025学年度第一学期期末检测七年级
英语试题
注意事项:
1.本试题共六个大题,分选择题和非选择题两种类型;选择题计80分,非选择题计70分;试卷总分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.考生应将答案全部答在答题卡上,注意事项请参照答题卡要求。考试结束后,试题和答题卡将一并收回。
一、听力测试(共25小题;1-20小题,每小题1分;21-25小题,每小题2分;总计30分;每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间)
(一)录音中有五个句子,每个句子听两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。(5分)
1. A. Yes, she doesn’t. B. She is healthy. C. No, she doesn’t.
2. A. On TV. B. On weekends. C. Football.
3. A. I’m from America. B. I like swimming. C. I’m in the library.
4. A. You are welcome. B. No thanks. C. Very fine, and you
5. A. It looks good. B. With pleasure. C. Thank you.
(二)录音中有三个句子,每个句子对应一幅图片,每个句子听两遍,然后选择与句子内容相对应的图片。(3分)
6. ______ 7. ______ 8. ______
(三)录音中有五组对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。(5分)
9. What does Linda like doing now
A. Playing the piano. B. Playing the guitar. C. Playing erhu.
10. What is the largest animal on land
A. The whale. B. The elephant. C. The horse.
11. What does the girl’s mother often do
A. She makes jiaozi. B. She cleans the room. C. She eats jiaozi.
12. What does the girl usually do to celebrate her birthday
A. She usually has a big cake.
B. She usually has a big meal.
C. She usually watches a great film.
13. Which subject does Jenny think is interesting
A. Chinese. B. Maths. C. English.
(四)录音中有一段长对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。(4分)
14. What is Alice going to do
A. Water flowers. B. Plant trees. C. Clean the room.
15. How long will the activity last (持续)
A. For 5 hours. B. For 6 hours. C. For 7 hours.
16. Where will Alice plant trees
A. At school. B. In the park. C. Near the lake.
17. Who will go with Alice
A. Her teachers. B. Her sister. C. Her parents.
(五)录音中有三小段独白,听独白两遍后,根据独白内容,将信息配对。(3分)
18. Jim A. reading
19. Jack B. drawing
20. Mary C. collecting cars
(六)听力填表(共5小题;录音播放前,你有20秒钟的读题时间)(10分)
录音中有一篇短文,是关于Linda的自我介绍。听短文两遍后,请你根据表格内容提示,记录相关信息,完成表格(每空一词)。
Linda’s information card
Nationality (国籍) She is an 21. ______ girl.
Age She is 22. ______ years old.
Place She is in 23. ______ now.
Favorites 24. ______ are her favourite.
Linda also likes 25. ______.
二、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2.5分,计50分)
阅读下列短文,然后从每小题A、B、C、D中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
Hello, I’m Bob. I’m 12 years old. I am at school now. I want to say something about me.
Playing volleyball is my hobby. I like it very much. I always play volleyball with my friends after school. It’s relaxing for me. I have five volleyballs. They are under my desk. And I like to watch volleyball games on TV.
I like some food. I have eggs, milk and some fruit for breakfast. For lunch, I have hamburgers and some salad. For dinner. I like chicken and some vegetables. I don’t eat ice cream. It’s not healthy. My favourite food is fruit and vegetables. I think they are good for our health. I’m healthy because I like to play sports and eat healthy food.
What about you Can you tell me about your hobby and eating habits
26. What is Bob’s hobby
A. Playing football. B. Playing basketball. C. Playing ping-pong. D. Playing volleyball.
27. Bob may have ______ for breakfast.
A. chicken and carrots B. eggs and some milk C. bread and vegetables D. chicken and hamburgers
28. What does the underlined word “they” in Paragraph 3 refer to (指代)
A. Vegetables. B. Hamburgers and salad.
C. Fruit and vegetables. D. Hamburgers.
29. Why doesn’t Bob eat ice cream
A. Because he doesn’t like it. B. Because it’s delicious.
C. Because it’s not healthy. D. Because it’s good for our health.
30. What’s the structure (结构) of the passage
A. ①—②③—④ B. ①②—③—④ C. ①—②③④ D. ①②③—④
B
One day in our English class, we were all listening to Miss Smith. She was teaching us new words about animals. Suddenly, a small bird came in through the door and stopped on the teacher’s desk.
Everyone watched. The bird looked around with its curious (好奇的) eyes. Miss Smith smiled and walked up to the bird. The bird wasn’t afraid and even made some sounds.
Then Miss Smith said. “Do you know why this bird is not afraid of us It’s because it trusts (信任) us. It thinks we will not do bad things to it. We should also trust our family and friends and be nice to them. Kindness (善良) can bring us friends and joy.”
Miss Smith then opened a window, and the bird went out of the classroom. When the bird was gone, we laughed happily.
That day, we learned not only words about animals but also a great lesson about kindness. It was a special English class that we would never forget.
31. What class was the writer taking
A. The math class. B. The Chinese class. C. The English class. D. The PE class.
32. Where did the animal stop
A. On a student’s desk. B. On Miss Smith’s desk.
C. In Miss Smith’s hand. D. On the floor.
33. What can we learn from Paragraph 3
A. Miss Smith wanted to give the bird some food.
B. The bird wanted to bring joy to students.
C. The bird trusted students and the teacher.
D. Friends are very important for people.
34. What did Miss Smith want students to do
A. To catch birds. B. To become happy. C. To be hard-working. D. To be kind to others.
35. What’s the best title of the passage
A. lucky bird. B. A kind teacher.
C. A special English class. D. Always trust people.
C
I love singing. But I am often laughed at for being a woman with a really deep voice. I couldn’t go to the choir (合唱团) as a kid. Because of this, I never sing when people are nearby.
I only sing in the car if I’m alone or when I’m home alone. My husband knows that I have this hobby. He wants to hear me sing. However, I never feel comfortable doing so.
One day, we were driving and it was a beautiful trip. I got a bit excited and I was feeling a bit brave. I said to my husband, “Could you put on my favourite CD ” He did and my true feelings came out. I couldn’t help singing.
My husband started crying. Then I started getting choked up (哽咽). It was such a fantastic day. Now I want to share it with anyone who might listen. Sing out loud, people. Don’t be afraid of being laughed at. Someone might even sing along.
36. Why do people laugh at the writer when she sings
A. She has an unusual voice. B. She looks like a kid.
C. She is bad at singing. D. She is good at singing.
37. What can we learn about the husband from Paragraph 2
A. He likes singing. B. He understands his wife.
C. He often leaves his wife alone. D. He laughs at his wife.
38. Why did the writer ask her husband to put on the CD
A. She wanted to sing. B. She was tired of the trip.
C. She liked to listen to it in the car. D. She was excited.
39. How did the writer feel when their trip ended
A. Sorry. B. Busy. C. Happy. D. Bored.
40. What can be the best title of the text
A. Always be happy. B. Travel with My Husband
C. Share Happiness with Friends D. Sing Out Loud
D
Can animals have their festivals today Yes, of course. And many countries have their own animal festivals to respect (尊重) different animals.
On the second Sunday of October, it’s Canadian Dog’s Day. On that day, all the Canadian dogs can enjoy the day. Canadian people see it as an important day because they think dogs are very kind to them and help them a lot. They can pull a sled (拉雪橇), carry things and do many other important things.
In a town of Belgium, the second Sunday of May is Cat’s Day. People there play some interesting games to have fun. They hope they will be lucky the next year.
In Indonesia, May 7th is Monkey’s Day. People give many candies and nuts to monkeys. They also play music for monkeys. All the monkeys will have a good time on that day.
We live in the same world with animals, so we should be friendly to them and get along very well with them.
41. How many animal festivals does the passage talk about
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
42. What does the underlined word “it” in Para. 2 refer to
A. Canadian dog. B. Canadian Dog’s Day. C. A sled. D. Monkey’s Day.
43. When is Cat’s Day in a town of Belgium
A. On May 17th. B. On the second Sunday of October.
C. On the second Sunday of May. D. On May 7th.
44. What do people in Indonesia do on Monkey’s Day
A. They eat many candies and nuts. B. They play interesting games.
C. They carry things for monkeys. D. They play music for monkeys.
45. What does the writer probably want to tell us
A. We should be nice to animals. B. Animals are very interesting.
C. Animals are strong but friendly. D. We live in the same world with animals.
三、短文还原(共5空,每小题2分,计10分)
阅读短文,从短文下面方框中的六个句子中选择五个还原到短文中,使短文通顺完整、衔接自然。
In China, primary schools and junior high schools are two different periods (时段) of education. Primary schools usually last for six years, 46. ______.
In primary schools, children learn basic subjects like Chinese, math, English, science, and social studies. 47. ______. When children come to junior high schools, they start to learn more subjects like history and geography. 48. ______ They also have more duties (职责) and can join school clubs or sports teams.
In both schools, teachers are kind. 49. ______ But in junior high, students need to be independent (独立的) and plan their time well. They start to be ready for their future.
So, a primary school is like a big playground, 50. ______. But a junior high school is a step (段) towards growing up and knowing about the world.
A. They help students grow. B. They make new friends and have fun while learning in primary schools. C. children learn and play there. D. All children like going to primary schools. E. while junior high schools last for three years. F. Junior high school students need to study hard and have much homework.
四、综合填空(共20空,每空1.5分,计30分)
A.根据句子意思及音标提示完成句子。
51. Helen’s birthday is coming, so her parents will ______ [h ld] a party for her.
52. If I made a ______ [m 'ste k] in my study, please point it out for me.
53. The best thing you can do is to be ______ [j :'self].
54. Parents are always ______ ['h r z] in the eyes of their children.
55. Miss Wang is a very ______ [str kt] teacher.
56. On the first day of school, we ______ [ ntr 'dju st] ourselves in class.
57. Westerners use ______ [na vz] and forks to eat.
58. Sam was very ______ ['l nli] when he first moved to New York.
59. He left ______ [w ' a t] saying goodbye.
60. If you ______ [m ks] blue and yellow, you get green.
B.阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,从方框内所给11个词汇中选择10个意义相符的词汇,必要时进行词形变化,填入空白处。
buy, because, go, between, on, decorate, good, festival, open, get, be
The Chinese New Year is one of the most important 61. ______ in China. It is spent 62. ______ January and February. The exact date varies (不同), depending on Chinese Lunar Calendar (农历). Chinese New Year is coming this year. Su Hai 63. ______ an email from her e-friend Anna in Hong Kong yesterday.
Dear Su Hai How are you It’s going to be Chinese New Year next week. I’m very excited! In Hong Kong, It is a tradition 64. ______ flowers during the Spring Festival. Do you know why 65. ______ in Cantonese (粤语), the word “hua” is pronounced similarly to the word “fa” in Mandarin (普通话). People believe buying flowers brings good luck (运气) to the coming year. They buy flowers 66. ______ their homes or give their friends as gift 67. ______ New Year’s Day. The flower markets are 68. ______ a few days before New Year and there 69. ______ many kinds of beautiful flowers. Tomorrow, my mum and I 70. ______ to a flower market near my house. What is Chinese New Year like in your hometown Please write to me soon. Best wishes, Anna
五、阅读表达(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
阅读短文,根据题目要求完成各小题。
Life Science Stories
Plants are a very important kind of life. Plants cover most land. They can be big or small and come in many colors, but they are not animals. Trees, flowers, grasses, and bushes (灌木) are common plants. How are animals and plants different Plants usually can’t move. Plants breathe a different kind of air than people and animals do. Plants make their own food from water, sunlight, and the soil. Plants can’t talk. Plants don’t think. Plants usually make more plants, or reproduce (繁殖), with seeds. How are animals and plants the same They both have body parts that do jobs. Animals eat food, but plants eat sunlight with their leaves and drink with their roots. Animals grow from babies to adults, and plants grow from seeds to adults.
71. What are common plants
____________________________________________________________________________________________
72. Can plants talk
____________________________________________________________________________________________
73. How are animals and plants the same
____________________________________________________________________________________________
74. Translate the underlined sentence into Chinese.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
75. What can you learn about plants from the passage (列举两点即可)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
六、书面表达(共1题,计20分)
亲爱的同学们,期待已久的寒假即将来临。为倡导同学们度过一个愉快而有意义的寒假,学校英语俱乐部举行题为“My Colorful Winter Holiday”的征文比赛。请你根据下方思维导图,用英语写一篇文章投稿。
要求:1.包含全部要点,可适当发挥。
2.不能出现真实校名及姓名
3.开头结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
4.60-70词左右,可适当发挥。
My Colorful Winter Holiday
The winter holiday is coming. What should we do to have a colorful winter holiday
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
I hope we all can have a colorful winter holiday!
二零二四至二零二五学年度第一学期七年级英语听力测试
(共25小题,1至20小题,每小题1分;21至25小题,每小题2分,总计30分;每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间)
(一)录音中有五个句子,每个句子听两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
1. Does your mother like chocolate
2. When do they watch football on TV
3. Where are you now
4. Thank you very much.
5. What do you think of your new school
(二)录音中有三个句子,每个句子对应一幅图片,每个句子听两遍,然后选择与句子内容相对应的图片。
6. My sister Mary usually goes to work by bus.
7. The cake is for Tom’s birthday.
8. There are many tall trees in the beautiful park.
(三)录音中有五组对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
9. M: What’s your hobby, Linda
W: I used to play the piano. But now I enjoy playing guitar very much.
10. M: What is the largest animal on land
W: Of course it’s the elephant.
11. M: What does your mother often do
W: She often makes jiaozi. But now she’s cleaning the room.
12. M: How do you usually celebrate your birthday
W: I usually go to a restaurant to have a big meal.
13. M: What classes do you have in the morning, Jenny
W: We have Chinese, maths and English. And I think Chinese is really interesting.
(四)录音中有一大段对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
M: Alice, what are you going to do
W: Tree-planting Day is coming. Our school has an activity about planting trees.
M: Sounds good. When will it start
W: At nine. And it will end at four in the afternoon.
M: Where will you plant trees
W: In the park near our school. Our teachers will go with us.
(五)录音中有三小段独白,听独白两遍后,根据独白内容,将信息配对。
18. Jim’s hobby is collecting cars. He has many kinds of model cars. He spends most of his lucky money on his hobby.
19. Jack’s hobby is drawing. He takes part in art classes every weekend. His dream is to be an artist in the future.
20. Mary likes reading very much. She usually finishes reading a book every week. She says reading makes her relaxed and happy.
(六)听力填表(共5小题;录音播放前,你有20秒钟的读题时间)
录音中有一篇短文,是关于琳达的自我介绍。听短文两遍后,请你根据表格内容提示,记录相关信息,完成表格(每空一词)。
Linda is an English girl. She is thirteen years old. She is a middle school student in Beijing now, because her father and mother work in China. They teach English in a high school and they can come to see Linda very often. Linda likes living in China because she is a fan of Chinese food. Noodles are her favourite. She can even cook noodles by herself. She also likes drawing and she is drawing a picture at the moment.
听力测试到此结束,请同学们继续做其他题目。2023—2024学年度第一学期期末测试七年级
英语试题答案及评分标准
一~二题
答案
1-5. CBCAA 6-8. BCA 9-13. BBABA 14-17. BCBA 18-20. CBA
21. English 22. 13/thirteen 23. Beijing 24. Noodles 25. drawing
26-30. DBCCA 31-35. CBCDC 36-40. ABACD 41-45. BBCDA
(二)评分说明
1、1-20小题,每小题1分;21-25小题,每小题2分;与答案不符不得分。
2、26-45题,每小题2.5分;与答案不符,不得分。
三、短文还原 (共5空,计10分)
(一)答案 46-50. EBFAC
(二)评分说明
1. 本题共5分,每空2分;
2. 与答案不符,不得分。
四、综合填空(共20空,计30分)
(一)答案
A) 51. hold 52. mistake 53. yourself 54. heroes 55. strict
56. introduced 57. knives 58. lonely 59. without 60. mix
B) 61. festivals 62. between 63. got 64. to buy 65. Because
66. to decorate 67. on 68. open 69. are 70. will go
(二)评分说明
1. 本题共30分,每空1.5分;
2. 与所给答案不符,只要语法、意义、拼写(含大小写)正确,也可酌情给分。
五、阅读表达(共5小题,计10分)
(一)答案:
71. Trees, flowers, grasses, and bushes are common plants.
72. No, they can’t.
73. They both have body parts that do jobs.
74. 动物吃食物,而植物则用它们的叶子吸收阳光,用根部吸收水分。
75. Plants cover most land. Plants make their own food from water, sunlight, and the soil. Plants can’t talk. Plants don’t think. Plants usually can’t move. (只要是有关植物的信息,答对两条即可)
(二)评分说明:
1. 本题共10分,每小题2分。
2. 虽与答案表达方式不同,但与所给参考答案意思一致,无语言错误,也可酌情给分。
六、书面表达(共1题,计20分)
(一)One possible version:

(二)评分说明
1.(18~20分)很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有的内容要点,结构完整,语句通畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法和词汇错误极少,书写规范。
2.(14~17分)较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有的内容要点,结构较为完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少,书写较为规范。
3.(10~13分)基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,书写基本规范。
4.(6~9分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点,结构不完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,影响理解,书写欠规范。
5.(0~5分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点,结构不完整,多数语句不完整或者意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。

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