宁德市2024-2025学年第一学期期末七年级质量检测
英 语 试 题
听力材料
Ⅰ.听力（共三节，20小题;每小题1分，满分20分）
第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A,B,C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)
My Aunt is in a white dress.
Vegetables are good for our health.
They are watching lantern shows.
Sharks can swim in the water.
My father usually takes me to go hiking on weekends.
听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案。(每段对话读两遍)
听第 1 段对话，回答第 6 小题。
W: What’s your student number
M: It’s 24715.
听第 2 段对话，回答第 7 小题。
W: Where are you from, Li Ming
M: I’m from Tianjin. It’s next to Beijing.
听第 3 段对话，回答第 8 小题。
M: Jane, what does your mother do
W: She is a policewoman. She works in a police station.
听第 4 段对话，回答第 9 小题。
W: Wang Junfeng, can you play badminton with me
M: Sorry,I can’t play it.I’m putting on my football shoes. I want to play football
听第 5 段对话，回答第 10、11 小题。
M: Gao Hui, what are you doing
W: I’m making some dishes with my mom.We’re preparing for the Chinese Spring Festival.
M: What’s your brother doing
W: He is helping my dad put up the couplets.
M: How busy you are!
听第 6 段对话，回答第 12、13 小题。
W: Hi, Chen Hua. How do you usually come to school
M: My home is near the school, so I usually come on foot. How about you, Zhao Xue
W: I live far from school. I often take the underground. There is a stop near my home.
M: I see. Oh, what time is it now
W: It's 5:55. It's time to go home. Bye-bye!
听第 7 段对话，回答第 14、15 小题。
W: What's your next class, Peter
M: History. It's my favourite subject.
W: Why do you like it
M: It's interesting to learn about the past.And my history teacher is really nice. What about you, Meimei
W: My favorite subject is English. It's useful. And I like English songs.
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。(短文读三遍) 注意：请将该题的答案书写在答题卡的第二部分第16-20小题上。
My Wildlife Friends is a book. It is about a little girl and her animal friends in deserts and forests. The girl’s name is Tippi. In the book, she spends a lot of time with her friends. She walks on the grassland with an elephant. It’s very strong. She says it is her brother. She likes to climb trees with her monkey friends. Even the lion is her friend. She calls it Mufasa. She enjoys playing with wild animals. My Wildlife Friends is a very wonderful book. I hope you can read it, too.宁德市2024-2025学年第一学期期末七年级质量检测
英 语 试 题
(满分：100分 考试时间:100分钟)
1．本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（1—65题）和第Ⅱ卷（66—81题）两部分。
2．卷Ⅰ（1—15题)和(21-65题）的选择题用2B铅笔在答题卡选择题答题区域
内填涂。
3．卷Ⅰ（16—20题）和卷Ⅱ（66—81题），请按题号顺序，用黑色签字笔在答题卡各题指定的答题区域内作答。
4．在本试卷上作答无效。
第Ⅰ卷
Ⅰ.听力（共三节，20小题;每小题1分，满分20分）
第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A,B,C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)
1.
A B C
2.
A B C
3.
A B C
4.
A B C
5.
A B C
第二节 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案。(每段对话读两遍)
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
6. What’s the boy’s student number
A. 24715. B. 24750. C. 24570.
听第 2 段对话，回答第 7 小题。
Where is Li Ming from
A. Tianjin. B. Beijing. C. Shanghai.
听第 3 段对话，回答第 8 小题。
8. What does Jane’s mother do
A. A doctor. B. A nurse. C. A policewoman.
听第 4 段对话，回答第 9 小题。
What does the boy want to do
A. Play baseball. B. Play football. C. Play badminton.
听第 5 段对话，回答第 10、11 小题。
What is Gao Hui preparing for
The Mid-autumn Festival.
The Chinese Spring Festival.
The Lantern Festival.
11. Who is helping Gao Hui’s dad
A. Gao Hui. B. Gao Hui’s mom. C. Gao Hui’s brother.
听第 6 段对话，回答第 12、13 小题。
How does Zhao Xue go to school
By bike. B. On foot. C. By underground.
13. What is the time now
A. 5:05. B. 5:15. C. 5:55.
听第 7 段对话，回答第 14、15 小题。
14. What is Peter’s favorite subject
A. Math. B. History. C. English.
15. Why does Meimei like English
A. It’s interesting. B. It’s useful. C. Her teacher is nice.
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。(短文读三遍) 注意：请将该题的答案书写在答题卡的第二部分第16-20小题上。
My Wildlife Friends
Who The book is about a little 16 and her animals friends.
What Tippi walks with a 17 elephant. Tippi climbs trees with her 18 friends. Tippi 19 the lion Mufasa.
Comment(评价) It is a very 20 book.
Ⅱ.选择填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。
21. ______ apple a day keeps the doctor away.
A. An B. The C. /
22. It ______ rains these days. The land is very dry.
A. seldom B. often C. sometimes
23. — What day is Tomb-sweeping Day this year
— I’m not sure. Let’s look at the ______.
A. bell B. photo C. calendar
24. Kangkang is good. He often ______ his hands and answers questions in class.
A. puts B. uses C. raises
25. AI is ______ ! I plan to make a survey with it.
A. helpful B. pretty C. traditional
26. Every time I visit my grandpa, I help him ______, such as cooking and washing.
A. do sports B. do chores C. do homework
27. Which of the following underlined parts is different in pronunciation (发音)
A. lake B. race C. flag
28. Lisa finds it hard to learn science, but she doesn’t ______.
A. warm up B. give up C. clean up
29. — Can we make a fire here
— ______ We’re near the forest. It’s dangerous.
Yes, we can. B. No, we don’t. C. No, we can’t.
30. — I think rainforests are home to many animals and plants.
— ______
You’re right. B. Good for you. C. Sounds great.
Ⅲ.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
What do you think of when you see a boat It’s just a vehicle (交通工具). 31 for me, a boat can be something more. I am Esa, a boy from Bangladesh. It often floods (发洪水) here in the 32 season. It’s really hard to walk on some roads. So 33 do I go to school Oh! The school comes to 34 ! It is a “floating (漂浮的) school!”
Early in the morning, the boat picks up (接) all my classmates. When we are all on the boat, class 35 . The boat is long and wide. Big 36 in the boat bring in lots of sunlight and air. We sit at the desks and 37 our teacher carefully all the morning. We study all kinds of interesting things. Sometimes we have 38 classes. We draw pictures. We also learn how to keep our rivers and the environment 39 . Another boat is new this year. It is a floating 40 and playground. During the free time, we like reading stories and doing sports there.
I learn a lot and have a good time in the floating school!
31．A. So B. And C. But
32．A. rainy B. snowy C. windy
33．A. why B. how C. when
34．A. me B. you C. them
35．A. ends B. lasts C. begins
36．A. doors B. computers C. windows
37．A. play for B. listen to C. talk about
38．A. art B. math C. P.E.
39．A. tidy B. fresh C. clean
40．A. shop B. library C. restaurant
Ⅳ.阅读理解（共两节，20小题；满分30分）
第一节 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共15小题：A篇每小题1分，B、C篇每小题2分, 满分25分）
A
After-School Clubs Come and have fun together! Thursday, January 2nd, 2025 from 2:00 p.m.-5:00 p. m.
Basketball Club Place: On the playground Time: 3:00 p. m.- 4:30 p. m. Teacher: Mr. Brown Activities: ● Watch a basketball game. ● Learn some basketball skills. Cooking Club Place: In the school kitchen Time: 3:00 p. m.- 5:00 p. m. Teacher: Mrs. Wang Activities: ● Learn about the history of jiaozi. ● Make jiaozi.
Reading Club Place: In the school library Time: 2:40 p. m.- 4:40 p. m. Teacher: Miss Hill Activities: ●Bring a favorite book to share with puter Club Place: In the computer room Time: 2:00 p. m.- 4:00 p. m. Teacher: Mr. White Activities: ●Learn how to write simple computer programs (程序).
Mike can see the basketball game at ________.
A．11:30 a. m. B．2:40 p. m. C．3:30 p. m. D．4:40 p. m.
Kate likes eating delicious food. Which club can she join
A. The computer club. B. The basketball club.
C. The reading club. D. The cooking club.
43. Who helps the children in the computer club
A. Mr. White. B. Mr. Brown. C. Miss Hill. D. Mrs. Wang.
44. Where can Kangkang share the book Monkey King, Sun Wukong
A. On the playground. B. In the school kitchen.
C. In the school library. D. In the computer room.
45. We can most probably (可能) find the text in ________.
A. a map B. a letter C. an email D. a poster
B
Do you like flowers Do you know about plum blossoms Plum blossoms are a special kind of flower.
The plant can grow up to 10 meters tall. Plum blossoms come in main colors: white, red, pink and yellow. They grow on a plum tree. A plum tree has many branches. They are long and thin. Plum blossoms grow on these branches. Each flower has five petals. They have a sweet smell (香气) and make people happy.
The flowers bloom (开花) at different times around the country. In the south, such as Guangzhou and Xiamen, they bloom from December to February. In the north, such as Beijing, they begin to bloom in late March or April.
Plum blossoms open up quietly during cold days. Many flowers do not like the cold, but plum blossoms stand in snow and ice bravely (勇敢地). They make the cold world more beautiful. Plum blossoms are Number One of the Top Ten Chinese flowers. The flowers are very important to Chinese people because of their history and cultural meanings: happiness, good luck and hope. They are wonders of nature.
46. How does the text start？
A. By telling a riddle. B. By asking questions.
C. By giving numbers. D. By showing a result.
47. What does the underlined word “They” in Paragraph 2 refer to(指代)
A. The plants. B. The petals. C. The branches. D. The flowers.
48. The flower can bloom in _______ in Xiamen.
A. March B. April C. June D. December
49. Why do people think plum blossoms are brave
A. They bloom during cold days. B. They have a sweet smell.
C. They come in four colors. D. They have many branches.
50. What can be the best title for the text
A. The Beautiful Plum Blossoms
B. Plum Blossoms in Different Seasons
C. The Top Ten Chinese Flowers
D. Plum Blossoms in Chinese Art
C
Li Cong is from Handan, Hebei. He goes to the space station(空间站) in Shenzhou-18 together with Ye Guangfu and Li Guansu. They live there for 192 days. “My brother is active. He often takes part in sports. And he is good at playing basketball,” His sister Li Na says to CCTV. “Li Cong has an idol (偶像). It is Nie Haisheng.”
In the space station, Li Cong has cool days. Just like on Earth, he also has the same hygiene need. When he gets up, he washes his hair and cleans his teeth. But water doesn’t fall down. It turns into small balls in the air. So he has to do this in a special(特殊的) way. After that, he eats space food for breakfast. Then he begins to work.
After his work, Li Cong does some exercise. When he is on Earth, his legs help him move. But in space, he doesn’t use his legs often. This is bad. So he has to train again and again every day.
Li Cong also has fun in space. He can enjoy music, books and playing cards. He can talk to his friends and families.
Being an astronaut is really great!
How many astronauts are there in Shenzhou-18
One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
52. What does Li Cong do well in according to the text
A. Reading. B. Basketball. C. Singing. D. Playing cards.
53. The underlined word “hygiene” means ________ in Chinese.
A．饮食 B．卫生 C．心理 D. 睡眠
54. What’s the main idea of Paragraph (段落) 3
A.Food in space. B.Work in space. C. Fun in space. D. Sports in space.
55. What can we learn from the text
A. Li Cong goes to the space with the help of his idol.
B. Li Cong washes his hair with special water.
C. Li Cong uses his legs often in the space station.
D. Li Cong’s life in space is different but cool.
第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯、意思完整。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
D
At a zoo in England, you may find some people wearing the eagle costume (鹰形的服装).What are they doing Why are they wearing the clothes 56 They want to make the seagulls (海鸥) fly away.
57 They eat other birds’ food. They take away food from people’s hands. They even catch ducks’ eggs. 58 The zoo wants to do something for other animals and people. 59 But the seagulls are not afraid (害怕) of it. The seagulls know the kite is not a real eagle. Then the zoo puts up statues (雕塑) of eagles. But the seagulls still aren’t afraid. 60 Luckily, the seagulls fly away. Now people and animals can enjoy themselves in the zoo.
56.__________ 57. __________ 58. __________ 59. __________ 60. __________
Ⅴ.情景交际（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
根据情景提示,从所给的七个选项中选出能填入对话空白处的最佳选项，使对话通顺、连贯，意思完整。（选项中有两项是多余的）
Susan (S) and Tom (T) are in the Lost and Found.
T : Can I help you
S : 61
T: What color is it
S: 62
T : I see. What’s your name, please
S: My name is Susan. My name card is in the schoolbag. You can see my name on it.
T : 63
S : Three books. Mmm... Two textbooks and a pencil-box.
T : Let me have a look. (After a while) 64
It was found (被发现) under the ping-pong table.
S: 65
T : You’re welcome. Look after your things, please.
61.__________ 62. __________ 63. __________ 64. __________ 65. __________
第Ⅱ卷
Ⅵ.看图写话（共5小题；每小题1分，共5分）
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
66 67 68 69 70
cute
67. behind
68. now
69. like
70. every year
Ⅶ.短文填词（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10 分）
阅读下面短文，根据语境或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。
Do you know there is a special day for friends It’s World Friends Day. This day falls 71 September 9th every year. The idea of World Friends Day is to let people nice and 72 (friend) to others. It wants people all over the world to make friends. Also it 73 (hope) people live well with all things around them.
People in Australia, just like in many other 74 (country), celebrate this day. They want to show how much they cherish (珍惜) 75 (they) friends. On this day, kids in Australia like 76 (make) cards for their friends. They use 77 (color) pencils to draw pictures. They write nice things: “You’re my best friend!”, “I’m happy we’re friends.”... on 78 cards. They also like to have a little party. They sing, dance 79 play games together. They bring some little cakes and share them with their friends happily.
World Friends Day helps kids understand the 80 (important) of friendship. It’s a day full of laughter.
71.__________ 72. __________ 73. __________ 74. __________ 75. __________
76.__________ 77. __________ 78. __________ 79. __________ 80. __________
Ⅷ.书面表达（满分10分）
81.假如你是李华，某英文杂志正在进行以“My Hometown”为主题的征稿活动，请你根据以下提示信息，写一篇短文向该杂志投稿，介绍你的家乡—宁德。词数60左右。
注意事项：1.必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥，开头和结尾已给出，不计入 总词数；
2.意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范；
3.请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。
My Hometown — Ningde
I’m Li Hua. I’m glad to introduce my hometown to you.____________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
Welcome to my hometown!2024-2025学年第一学期期末七年级质量检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
Ⅰ.听力部分（共三大题，满分20分)
（每小题1分，共5分） 1-5 ABCAB
（每小题1分，共10分）6-10 AACBB 11-15 CCCBB
（每小题1分，共5分） 16. girl 17. strong 18. monkey 19. calls 20. wonderful
Ⅱ.选择填空（每小题1分，共10分) 21-25 AACCA 26-30 BCBCA
Ⅲ.完形填空 (每小题1分，共10分) 31-35 CABAC 36-40 CBACB
Ⅳ.阅读理解 （30分）
（A篇）（每小题1分，共5分） 41-45 CDACD
（B篇）（每小题2分，共10分）46-50 BCDAA
（C篇）（每小题2分，共10分）51-55 CBBDD
（D篇） （每小题1分，共5分） 56-60 CDBAE
Ⅴ.情景交际（每小题1分，共5分）61-65. EAGCB
Ⅵ.看图写话 （每小题1分，共5分）
(评分建议：只要考生按图示和指示词写出意思完整，语法正确的句子即可得分，所给提示词必须用上。允许多种答案，对不影响交际功能的应尽量减少对非关键性错误的扣分。)
66.The baby/The boy is cute.
67.There is a cat behind the door./ The cat is behind the door.
68.They/The boys are running now.
69.The girl/She likes playing the guitar.
70.The boy/He plants trees every year.
Ⅶ.短文填词 (每小题1分，共10分, 词形有误不得分)
on 72. friendly 73. hopes 74. countries 75.their
76. making 77. colourful/colorful 78. the 79. and 80. importance
Ⅷ.书面表达 (10分)
一、评分原则：
本题总分为10分，按四个档次给分。评分时，先根据文章内容要点、应用词汇、语法结构的准确性及上下文的连贯性初步确定其所属档次，然后根据拼写、书写和词数等情况调整档次，最后给分。词数少于40词的，从总分中减去2分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档：（10-8分）能写出要点并适当拓展，行文连贯, 语言无误，完全达到写作要求。
第二档：（7-5分）能写出基本要点，语言虽有较多错误，尚能达意。
第三档：（4-2分）只能写出二、三个与要点有关的句子, 语言错误多未达到写作要求。
第四档：（1-0分）仅写出个别单词、短语；未表达任何与本题内容有关的信息，或只字未写。
81.参考范文
I’m Li Hua. I’m glad to introduce my hometown to you. It is in the southeast of Fujian. The climate is not too cold or too hot here.There are many kinds of animals and plants in Ningde. You can see egrets flying happily. And you also enjoy some delicious sea food. You can climb hills and fly kites in many beautiful parks. In autumn, you can enjoy the beautiful osmanthus. You will have a good time here any time in the year!
Welcome to my hometown.
1
