2024学年第一学期九年级英语学科课堂作业评价答题卷
听力部分（满分20分）
听力
1-5. BAABC 6-10. BBCCA 11-15. CBBBA
笔试部分（满分100分）
二、完型填空
16-20 CBDAA 21-25 CBDBD 26-30 ABCDC
三、阅读理解
31---33 D B A 34--37 BCBA 38--41 BACC 42--45 BCAB
四、词汇运用
46. was punished 47. in person 48. products 49. lay 50. against
51. preparing 52. hero 53. patient 54. advice 55. deal/do
56. international 57. repeated 58. finally 59. present 60.expressions
五、语法填空
61. a 62. habits 63. southern 64.be divided 65. their
66.food’s 67. shows 68. whether 69. to treat 70. by
六、任务型阅读
71.A 72．C 73．B 74．D
75．Yes, I will. Because it’s formal and polite. /No, I won’t. Because it is not convenient and I may not get a reply at once.
书面表达
76.略2024学年第一学期九年级英语学科课堂作业评价调测卷
听力部分（20分）
听力（本题有15小题，第一、二节每小题1分，第三节每小题2分，共20分）
第一节 听下面5段小对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，对话读一遍。
1. What does Cindy want to drink
A. Milk. B. Coffee. C. Tea.
2. What does the girl’s brother want to be
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A pilot.
3. Why can’t the man go to the birthday party
A. Because he is busy. B. Because he is ill. C. Because he is lazy.
4. Which sport does Tina like best
A. Soccer. B. Basketball. C. Baseball.
5. Why does Grace like Center Cinema
A. It has the lowest price. B. It has the most comfortable seats. C. It has the newest movie.
第二节 听两段较长对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6-7两小题。
6. Where did Tony and Teddy meet
A. At the bus stop. B. On the school bus. C. At the school gate.
7. Where does Teddy live now
A. In the south of the city. B. In another city. C. Near Tony’s home.
听下面一段对话，回答第8-10三小题。
8. How was the school talent show
A. Boring. B. Interesting. C. Exciting.
9. What is Dale good at
A. Singing. B. Dancing. C. Playing the guitar.
10. Who was the most creative actor
A. Alan. B. Dale. C. Susan.
第三节 听下面短文，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。短文对话读两遍。
11. When will the English Summer Camp be
A. From July 12 to August 20. B. From June 10 to July 20. C. From July 20 to August 12.
12. When will they offer a volunteer program
A. On weekdays. B. On weekends. C. On Fridays.
13. What club will they have
A. English club and music club. B. Art club and sports club. C. Art club and English club.
14. What can you do in the summer camp
A. See an English movie. B. Join an English speaking competition.
C. Have an English evening party.
15. What’s their telephone number
A. 5687 2930. B. 5683 3920. C. 5782 2930.
笔试部分（100分）
二、完型填空（本题15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
阅读下列短文，掌握大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
I have five children, so our house is always noisy. 16 , I love gardening and my garden helps me relax. For a long time, I 17 the garden of peace and quiet. When the children followed me into the garden, I would expect 18 to be out of sight. And I would hand out tasks.
“Here: you 19 the onions, you dig the holes, and... "Soon they would be 20 or their arms would be sore, and they would leave me to myself.
But during a recent spring, 21 I was working in the garden, my 13-year-old son, Josiah noticed me. He 22 a tool and began helping. Working as a team, we finished the job in no time at all. I 23 Josiah, realizing that I’d enjoyed working with him.
The same thing happened-one or two of the 24 would appear and join in the gardening from time to time. Each time, I would feel 25 that the work was lighter because of their help.
One day, when I was picking the peas and having a taste 26 , Abby saw me and ran over. I put several peas into her mouth. She just loved how 27 they were.
“Mama, I want the others to try them too.”
Suddenly, I realized I had been wrong for long. I’d tried to keep the 28 of gardening to myself, and here was a child who couldn’t wait to 29 with others. “Sure, honey, let’s pick some. We’ll make a wonderful supper.” Now I enjoy all of the garden’s beauties with the children. We bring the 30 back home, preparing and cooking the produce together, because we know that everything is better when shared.
16. A. Finally B. Quickly C. Luckily D. Immediately
17. A. painted B. guarded C. refused D. described
18. A. it B. him C. her D. them
19. A. water B. eat C. sell D. cook
20. A. hot B. shy C. sorry D. nervous
21. A. so B. if C. while D. unless
22. A. waited B. picked up C. pointed at D. looked after
23. A. hated B. forgot C. saved D. thanked
24.A friend B. children C. visitors D. neighbors
25.A. bored B. silly C. afraid D. surprised
26. A. alone B. sadly C. together D. instead
27. A. safe B. tasty C. famous D. expensive
28. A. tradition B. standard C. happiness D. background
29. A. live B. agree C. work D. share
30. A. meat B. bread C. fruits D. drinks
三、阅读理解（本题15小题，每小题2分，共计30分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
60-Seconds Fixes: Increase Your Energy in A Minute or Less
Take in fresh air When you are in a state of worry, the amount of O2 in your body can be reduced. To increase your energy immediately, take in some fresh air outside. And you will be full of energy again
Enjoy the sunshine Showing yourself to natural sunlight, especially when you wake up in the morning, can help stop your body from producing melatonin（褪黑素）, which can make you feel sleepy easily.
Drink peppermint tea According to a study published in North America, drinking some peppermint tea can make you less tired and sleepy while driving. Researchers have also found that those who drink peppermint tea are more energetic in mind.
Have a piece of gum It’s not exactly clear why, but a number of studies have shown that chewing gums help people hold their attention. During World War Ⅰ, American soldiers depended quite a lot on gums to keep attention.
How many ways can we increase our energy in around one minute
A.Six B. Two C. Three D. Four
32. The above passage can be described as ______.
A. advice on keeping relaxed B. methods for having energy
C. steps of taking indoor exercise D. instructions about staying healthy
33. From the passage we can know that ______.
A. fresh air plays an important part in reducing people’s worries.
B. sunshine can make people full of energy by producing melatonin.
C. people may feel a bit more tired after they drink some peppermint tea.
D. having gums is helpful for people to turn their attention to a new problem.
B
It was the early 1950s, and I was a member of the A class at Armidale High School in northern New South Wales.
In second and third year we all did General Maths, and our teacher was Mrs. Lindsay. Her arrival at our classroom was always quick, “Good morning, everyone!" Small but energetic, she would drop her things on the teacher's table, and move to the blackboard quickly, going on the material of the last lesson as if we had just been away from the room for five minutes.
I've thought a lot about Mrs. Lindsay over the years. What was her special magic There are two reasons. She loved her subject, and she loved us, in a patient way. She called us all by our first names pleasantly. She had a way of teaching that I loved.
“Now we could go down this path, couldn't we We could argue this, and then this, but that doesn't work because of this. No Can Do (NCD)!” She would put a big cross, and write “NCD” against what she had put down. “Right! Why not go down this new path And she would show us that this new way worked. It was fun, and her love for maths caught on. We all did well for her, the poor students as well as the skilled.
I've never found maths difficult, and I put that skill down to her.
In fourth and fifth years, Mrs. Lindsay didn't teach us anymore. But as the final exam were coming, one of my friends became nervous. With great courage, he went to see Mrs. Lindsay, and asked if she would help him prepare for his exam. “Of course!" she said, and did just that, after school, in her own time. He passed.
What a good teacher!
34. What is the second paragraph mainly about
A. What Mrs. Lindsay was like. B. How Mrs. Lindsay started her class.
C. How Mrs. Lindsay treated her students. D. How Mrs. Lindsay entered her class.
35. What does the writer mean by saying “I put that skill down to her” in paragraph 4
A. He forgot the maths skill Mrs. Lindsay has taught.
B. He found that the maths skill was difficult to learn.
C. He thought Mrs. Lindsay was the reason why he learned maths well.
D. He hoped Mrs. Lindsay would teach him more maths skills.
36. What can you learn from the passage
A. In the second and third year, the writer took two maths classes with five minutes’ break.
B. Mrs. Lindsay’s love for her job and students is her special magic.
C. Mrs. Lindsay was so strict that even the poor did well in the math.
D.Mrs. Lindsay helped the writer to pass the exam even though she didn’t teacher him anymore.
37. Which of the following can best describe Mrs. Lindsay
A. Energetic and warm-hearted B. Brave and patient
C. Strict and strong-willed D. humorous and careful
C
Dear Teens,
①Do you wonder why some kids can stay calm while others get nervous so easily Why do some kids do everything very quickly while others are very sluggish Why are some kids always happy while some feel upset all times
②One of the answers to these questions is personality（个性）. People were born with different personalities. A baby gets its blood type, genes（基因）and other physical things when it is still inside its mother. These factors（因素）make part of your personality. Besides, family life, school learning and life experiences can also decide what kind of person you are. You may not like your personality. Don’t worry.You can always try to change it and make yourself better.
③If you are a selfish person who always thinks of yourself, you can start this way. Try to give others a hand and ask for nothing in return. The happiness you get from giving instead of receiving will help you change your personality.
④If you are very shy and don’t know how to make friends, just tell yourself to smile at others and start talking to others with warm greetings. You are sure to have more friends than you used to do.
⑤If you are a sluggish person who always does things slowly, you’d better make a plan every day. When you finish something, draw a happy face. If not, draw a crying one. No one would like to see a crying face and you will have the desire to change it into a smiling one.
⑥All in all, don’t get too worried about your shortcomings（缺点）. No one is perfect. That’s why many pe ople are trying to change. Don’t give yourself a hard time about it all. It’s not easy to change the habits overnight. Remember “Rome is not built in a day”. Keep working at it. One day you’ll see that you can turn over a new leaf and be a new person.
Dr. Olson
38.What does the underlined word “sluggish” (Paragraph 1) probably means
A. silly B. slow C. dull D. lazy
39.If Jenny is a shy girl, what can she do to make herself better
Talk to others with a smile on her face.
Get the joy from giving instead of receiving.
Make a careful plan to finish everything.
Turn over a new leaf and be a new person.
40.Which of the following does Dr. Olson agree with
You can never change your personality.
If you draw a happy face, you can do everything quickly.
Help others, and you can change your selfish personality.
School learning is the only thing that decides what kind of person you are.
41.Which of the following shows the structure of the passage（文章结构）
B. C. D.
D
Many pet owners think their dogs know exactly how they’re feeling and will even try to comfort them. New research suggests this may be more than just a feeling. Your dog can tell when you’re under stress because of your smell.
Researchers got four dogs from Belfast in Northern Ireland. Sweat （汗水）and breath samples were collected from 36 people before and after they tried to solve a math problem. The increases in blood pressure and heart rates showed that their stress levels increased after they completed the task. The four dogs were presented with a machine with an unused pieces of cloth, a sample from a person under stress, and one from the same person without stress. Surprisingly, the dogs correctly found the sample from the person under stress.
“The findings show that we , as humans, produce different smells through our sweat and breath when we are under stress. And dogs can tell this apart from our smell when we are relaxed—even if it’s someone they don’t know.” Explained researcher Clara Wilson.
The research shows that dogs don’t need other senses to pick up on human stress. This is the first study of its kind. And it shows that dogs can smell stress from breath and sweat alone, which could be useful for training service dogs. The research also helps to explain the human-dog relationship and adds to our understanding of how dogs may understand people’s states of mind. In general, the findings could help with the training of service dogs.
Though the study wasn’t about the dogs’ emotional feelings to human stress, the researchers said that the pets generally became highly excited when they found these samples, as they would get a delicious meal.
42.What were the four dogs required to do in the study
A.Help patients get well. B. Tell several smells apart.
C. Work out a simple math problem. D. Collect clothes with sweat from their owners.
43.What can we infer from the study findings
A.Training dogs is a long-term process.
B. Dogs’ feelings can be influenced by smells.
C. People smell differently in different states of mind.
D. Human sweat has a harmful influence on dogs’ health.
44.What do the study findings turn out to be
A. Helpful. B. Wrong. C. Unbelievable. D. Painful.
45.What is the passage mainly about
A.An improvement in dogs’ ability to tell the differences. B.Dogs’ ability to know human stress.
C.The relationship between humans and dogs. D. A new way to judge people’s stress levels.
四、词汇运用（A、B两部分。A部分有5小题，B部分有10小题，每小题1分，共15分）
A 用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，并填写在答题纸上。每词限用一次。
product against in person punish lie
46. Bob _________ because he drove after drinking last night.
47. President Xi wrote a letter _________ to encourage the students to study hard.
pare the prices of _________ when you shop online. It will save money.
49. Tony felt sick and ________ in bed for hours.
50. That night he could clearly hear the rain beat heavily ________ the window.
B.阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）
Dear Dad,
Father’s Day is coming. Although I am busy__51__（准备）for the high school entrance exams, I want to celebrate it for you because you are my__52__(英雄). I’d say, “I love you, Dad!”
I do think you are the most __53__（有耐心的）father in the world. Every time I have trouble, you always give me so much__54__（建议） and help me __55__（处理） with it. I remember once I failed in an__56__（国际）competition, I felt terrible. Instead of complaining, you just said to me quietly, “A real man must learn to face many failures in life bravely. Cheer up!” I__57__（重复） your words many times and___58___（最终）knew what its meaning was.
Dad, I am going to buy you a postcard as a__59__ (礼物）. I hope you will like it although I don’t think it can give all___60____（表达） of my love to you. I believe you can understand me.
Love you forever, Dad!
Best wishes!
语法填空(本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词) 或括号内单词的正确形式。
Food culture is an important part of traditional Chinese culture. Now let’s learn something about it.
China is (61)______ large country with many different places. People living in different places have different eating (62)_______(habit). For example, people in (63)_______ (south) China take rice as the main food, but people from northern China are used to eating noodles as the main food. As for the taste, the whole country can (64)_____ (divide) into four parts: sweet south, salt north, sour east and spicy west. And Chinese people also change (65)________(they) cooking methods as the seasons change. People in winter mostly eat hot food, but in summer, people often eat cold food.
Chinese cooking pays much attention to the (66)____ (food) color, aroma, taste and shape. “Aroma” (67)_____ (show) the smell of the dishes. “Taste” includes the freshness of the food and proper seasoning. Speaking of the shape, (68)_____ it is a cabbage or carrot, it can be cut into different shapes to match the whole dish.
Chinese people believe that food can also be used (69)______(treat) sickness. When you are not seriously ill, you can treat your sickness (70)_________eating the right food. Medicine is believed to be harmful more or less. So food is a safer way to keep healthy though it works slower.
六、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分）
阅读下面材料，从下面所给的A-E五个选项中选择正确的选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，将其序号填入1-4题，并回答5题。
Many times we need to write an invitation. ________
Here’s all of the information you need to write on your party invitation. By showing all of the facts about your party, guests will feel easier to make decisions. ________
The first thing you should put on your invitation is the names of the party hosts. Your invitation should also show the type of party to the persons that you want to invite.
________ If your guests don’t know about the place, they can check the way to go without getting lost.
Clearly write the time of your party, with both the date and the day of the week.
________ Your invitation also needs to tell your guests when to arrive and how long the party will last.
You’ll want your guests to reply to your invitation as soon as possible. You can give them a date by which you’ll need an answer. Also, tell them a phone number or an e-mail address so that they can let you know.
A. But do you know how to write a right invitation
B. The next thing you should write on your invitation is the place where the party will be held.
C. They will be clear about whether they can accept it or they have to turn it down.
D. After checking the calendar, the guests will know if they are available on that day.
E. All the guests should be on time.
71.________ 72. ________73.________74.________
75. Will you write an invitation to invite your friend to your party Why or why not (第二问回答不超过15个词）
____________________________________________________________________________________
七、书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
76.假如你是李平，你收到了笔友 Sally 的一封邮件，她在信中咨询了几个问题。请仔细阅读她的邮件，
并给她回复。
From：Sally To: Li Ping Dear Li Ping, How’s everything going I’m going to give a speech on Chinese traditional culture in the World Culture Club. Which Chinese traditional culture product do I introduce What is it made of What is it used for And why is it so special and famous I feel upset nowadays, because my mom says joining the club is a waste of time. What do you think of it Should I be allowed to join the club I’m looking forward to your reply! Yours, Sally.
要求：
1. 语言表达要准确，语意要通顺、连贯。
2. 100-110 词左右。（邮件称呼及落款已给出，不计入总词数）
3. 仔细审题，不要缺少要点。
Dear Sally,
_____________________________________________________________________________________
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_____________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Ping
