青山区2024-2025 学年度第一学期期中质量检测
七年级 英语试卷
2024. 11
(请将答案写在答题卡上 满分：120分 时间：120 分钟)
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题 共 80 分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试部分 (共三小节，满分20分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 听完每个问题后，你都有 5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题，每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. Thank you. B. Peter Brown. C. I am fine.
2. A. C-A-P. B. In the room. C. It’s yellow.
3. A. They are new. B. On your head. C. They are Teng Fei’s.
4. A. Miss Gao. B. English. C. She is great.
5. A. Twelve. B. They’re white. C. Very cute.
第二节 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。
6. Where’s Peter
A. In a library. B. In a classroom. C. On a farm.
7. What are they talking about
A. A photo. B. Paul’s family. C. Paul’s friends.
8. What’s the girl’s family name
A. Amy. B. Brown. C. Green.
9. What color is Emma’s bike
A. Blue. B. Pink. C. Black.
10. What plants are in the yard
A. Carrot plants. B. Tomato plants. C. Potato plants.
11. How many trees are there on the farm
A. Two. B. Nine. C. Eleven.
12. What are they doing
A. B. C.
第三节 (共 8 小题，每小题 1分，满分 8分)
听下面 3 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答13至14两个小题。
13. What’s the boy’s family name
A. Hand. B. Black. C. Bruce.
14. What’s the girl’s telephone number
A. 347-5912. B. 436-1908. C. 347-1908.
听下面一段对话，回答15至17三个小题。
15. What does Emma’s sister like
A. Taking photos. B. Drawing pictures. C. Playing the guitar.
16. Where is Johnny in the photo
A. On Emma’s left. B. On Emma’s right. C. Behind Emma.
17. Who has black hair
A. Emma. B. Sally. C. Laura.
听下面一段独白，回答18至20三个小题。
18. Which class is Helen in
A. Class Five. B. Class Six. C. Class Seven.
19. What’s Helen’s brother like
A. Nice. B. Friendly. C. Lovely.
20. What do we know about Helen
A. Her parents are teachers. B. She has short brown hair. C. She likes playing the violin.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
(1) 从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个划线部分读音不同的选项。
21. A. this B. rabbit C. unit D. white
22. A. make B. cake C. apple D. take
23. A. both B. not C. notebook D. home
24. A. now B. how C. yellow D. brown
25. A. books B. dogs C. boys D. balls
(2) 从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. — ____________
—I’m good, thank you.
A. What’s your name B. Good morning.
C. How are you D. Hello!
27. —Can you show me your new bicycle
—____________. I’ll be happy to!
A. Sorry B. Sure C. Nice to meet you D. I can’t
28. —My sister has ____________ piano. She likes it very much.
—Well, my sister likes playing ____________ violin.
A. a; the B. a; a C. the; the D. the; a
29. —What’s ____________ name
—Bill Smith. You can call ____________ Bill.
A. his; him B. her; him C. her; her D. him; his
30. —What does ____________ brother do
—He is a doctor.
A. Jim’s and Paul’s B. Jim and Paul C. Jim’s and Paul D. Jim and Paul’s
31. —Hey, the girl is not Emma. She is Ella.
—Oh, sorry. It’s my ____________.
A. classmate B. mistake C. sister D. friend
32. —Let’s ____________ at four this afternoon to play football.
—Good idea.
A. meet B. spell C. count D. talk
33. —What can you see ____________ the yard
—An apple tree. There are many apples ____________ it.
A. in; in B. in; on C. on; in D. on; on
34. —____________ are you
— I’m twelve.
A. How many B. What class C. How old D. What color
35. —Can Mary do it all by herself
—No, she can’t. She is still ____________ at this job.
A. white B. blue C. red D. green
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文。从短文后各网所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
A
A: Good morning!
B: Good 36 !
A: What’s your name
B: 37 name is Fu Xing. And your name
A: Emma Miller.
B: Can you 38 your name
A: E-M-M-A, Emma. M-I-LL-E-R, Miller.
B: What’s this 39 your hand
A: 40 is a ping-pong bat. Do you like playing ping-pong
B: No, I don’t. But I like playing basketball.
A: Nice to meet you!
B: Nice to meet you too!
36. A. morning B. afternoon C. evening D. night
37. Α. I B. Me C. My D. Mine
38. A. speak B. spell C. talk D. say
39. A. in B. on C. under D. behind
40. A. This B. That C. Its D. It
B
Hello, everyone! My name is David Green. David is my 41 name. I’m 13 years old. I am 42 American boy, but I am in Wuhan with my parents now.
I 43 a friend. His name is Peter. He is from England. His telephone number is 468-5149. Bob 44 I are in Wuhan. We are students in the same school. It is very beautiful and we like it very much. But we aren’t in the same 45 . He is in Class 3, Grade 7. I am in Class 1, Grade 7. Miss Wu is our English 46 . She is 26. Her classes are 47 . We all like her. Mr Zhao teaches us maths. He is nice and friendly. He likes to 48 me with my maths.
Look! Some things are in my pencil box. 49 is that It’s a ruler. It’s nice. I can spell it, R-U-L-E-R, ruler. Those are my pencils. I like to use them to draw 50 .
41. A. first B. middle C. last D. full
42. A. a B. an C. the D. \
43. A. am B. is C. has D. have
44. A. so B. but C. and D. or
45. A. room B. school C. grade D. class
46. A. student B. girl C. teacher D. friend
47. A. boring B. interesting C. difficult D. funny
48. A. thank B. see C. meet D. help
49. A. Who B. What C. When D. Where
50. A. pictures B. cards C. words D. photos
四、阅读理解 (共 15 小题，每小题 2分，满分 30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每篇材料后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中，选出最佳答案。
A
Some small things can make our life easy and interesting. Here are some interesting inventions (发明). Let’s see them together.
What is this It is a pair of glasses. The glasses are colorful, bright and amazing. A pair of glasses is about $129. There are colorful LED lights in the glasses. Wear the glasses and you’ll look cool at the party.
Is it a toy for kid No, it’s a hand washer. Put your hands under it. It gives you liquid soap (洗手液) Its LED light will be on for 10 seconds. In this way, you will know how long you should wash your hands.
Scrubba mini is a very small washing bag. It’s from Australia. It’s about 36 cm high. Just put water into it, and then rub (搓) the bag with your hands. It takes only 30 seconds to clean a T-shirt.
Is this a bed Yes, it is. But it’s very special. It can change its temperature (温度). In this way, people won’t feel too hot or too cold. They can sleep well.
51. In which section of a newspaper can we read the passage
A. SPORTS. B. SCIENCE. C. MUSIC. D. TRAVEL.
52. What can you take to a party if you want to be cool
A. RGB LED Shades. B. Scrubba mini.
C. Eight Sleep Pod. D. Auto Soap Dispenser.
53. What can we know about Auto Soap Dispenser
A. It’s from Australia. B. It looks like a bag.
C. It has an LED light. D. It’s a nice toy.
54. What’s Serubba mini used for
A. Giving out light. B. Washing hands.
C. Making clothes. D. Washing clothes.
55. What can the Eight Sleep Pod help you do
A. Sleep well. B. Look cool. C. Eat well. D. Keep clean.
B
Han Zilin is from Ningbo, China. His English name is Finn. Four people are in his family. They are his father, his mother, his sister and him. The English name of his sister is Fila. She is three years older than him. He likes his family very much.
His birthday is on 16th September. He is only ten years old. But he is a star now. He can act very well. He plays in many films. Many people like his performance (表演) very much. He loves music too. He is good at singing and dancing in his free time, he sings and dances. He also plays the guitar when he is free. Now he can play it very well. He’s not only talented (有才艺的), but also very kind. He always helps people.
56. How old is Han Zilin’s sister
A. Three. B. Seven. C. Ten. D. Thirteen.
57. What docs Han Zilin often do in his free time
①sing songs ②act in films ③dance ④play the guitar
A. ②③④ B. ①③④ C. ①②③ D. ①②④
58. What can you know from the passage
A. Han Zilin is a good actor. B. Han Zilin lives in Hangzhou.
C. Han Zilin’s English name is Fila. D. Han Zilin’s birthday is on 16th October.
59. What may the writer talk about next
A. What he likes. B. How he helps people.
C. Where he studies. D. Why he acts in films.
60. The best title for the passage can be ____________.
A. The Kind Help B. A Popular Film
C. The Talented Han Zilin D. A Happy Family
C
Friends are very important, especially (尤其) for students. They make you laugh. They do many things together with you, and they are there for you when you are sad. Here is how to make friends.
First, you can talk with your classmates. If you just sit alone (独自) , your classmates might not come to you, because they may think you want to stay alone. If you talk to your classmates, you can get to know them, and then become friends with them.
Next, you can find friends with common interests (共同爱好). Joining a club is a good way to do that. For example, ★ . There, many students also like science. You can talk with them.
When you make new friends, you need to be reliable (可靠的) to them. When you say you will do something, do it. For example, if you and your friend agree to meet at 8 o’clock, don’t be late. You should also keep your friends’ secrets. You should be with your friends when they need you. If you treat your friends well, they will be nice to you too.
Now, do you know how to make friends
61. Why should students talk to their classmates
A. Talking to others is interesting. B. The teacher asks them to do that.
C. They can ask each other for help. D. They can know their classmates well.
62. Which of the following can be put in ★
A. joining a club is interesting B. science club has much fun
C. you can join the science club D. there are many clubs in the school
63. How can students find friends with common interests
A. By joining a club. B. By sending an email.
C. By asking them. D. By writing a blog (微博).
64. What can we know from the fourth paragraph
A. Students can be late when they meet their friends.
B. Students should do everything together with their friends.
C. Students can share the secrets of their friends with others.
D. Students should be with their friends when they are in need.
65. Why does the writer write this passage
A. To ask students to join the school clubs.
B. To teach students how to make friends.
C. To tell students friends are important.
D. To show different kinds of friends.
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共 40分)
五、句型转换 (共10个空，每空1分，满分10分)
66. My grandpa has eight geese on the farm. (就划线部分提问)
____________ ____________ geese does my grandpa have
67. That is a tomato. (变复数句子)
____________ are some____________.
68. It’s a red flower. (就划线部分提问)
____________ ____________ is the flower
69. Peter and Meimei are in Class 1. (变为同义句)
____________ are in the____________ class.
70. She has a new schoolbag. (变一般疑问句)
____________ she____________ a new schoolbag
六、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
仔细阅读下面5个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构，句意和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的。)
71. Oh, that’s the____________. Let’s go to class.
72. You need to keep your room____________.
73. Oh no. Look there! Another duck is____________ the big tree.
74. Pauline Lee____________ in Singapore with his big family.
75. My mum always ____________ me a story at night.
七、综合填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
Hello, my name is Wei Hua. I am a ____________ (76) (China) boy, but now I am at the International School of English in London. I am in Class 2 with other 23 students. The students in my class are from many different ____________ (77) (country). They are from England, America, France and even Thailand. Our ____________ (78) (teacher) name is James Smith. He ____________ (79) (teach) us English. And he can speak Chinese very ____________ (80) (good).
I live with an English family. They are very nice. There are 2 kids in the family. Their names are Jane and Rick. We are good friends. Jane ____________ (81) I can look after our things well, but Rick can’t. Look, this is his room. It is not tidy. Many things ____________ (83) (be) on the desk. They are notebooks, CDs, tapes, pens and pencils. One of his socks is under the bed ____________ (83) is the other one We can’t see it! It’s 8 o’clock ____________ (84) the morning now. But Rick is still in bed. “Come on! You are going to be late!” his mother shouts at ____________ (85) (he). “No, Mom, today is Saturday.” Rick says.
八、书面表达 (共1大题，满分15分)
假如你是李明，你校英语俱乐部正在开展”寻找最美全家福”的征集活动，你想参加，请根据以下内容提示介绍你的全家福。
内容提示：
How many people are there in your family
What are they like
What are their hobbies
Something more about your family.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实姓名和所在学校名称等信息；词数 60-80；开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Hello, I’m Li Ming. Here is a photo of my family. ______________________________________________
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青山区2024-2025 学年度第一学期期中质量检测
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力部分： (每小题1分，共20分)
1-5 BCBAA 6-10 ВACВC 11-15 CВВАC 16-20 ВCАCА
二、选择填空： (每小题1分，共15分)
21-25 DCBCA 26-30 CBAAD 31-35 BABCD
三、完形填空： (每小题1分，共15分)
36-40 ACBAD 41-45 ABDCD 46-50 CBDBA
四、阅读理解： (每小题2分，共30分)
51-55 BACDA 56-60 DBABC 61-65 DCADB
五、句型转换 (每空1分，满分10分)
66. How; many 67. Those; tomatoes 68. What; colo (u) r 69. They; same 70. Does; have
六、选词填空： (每小题1分，共5分)
71. bell 72. tidy 73. behind 74. lives 75. reads
七、阅读理解填词 (每小题1分，共10分)
76. Chinese 77. countries 78. teacher’s 79. teaches 80. well
81. and 82. are 83. Where 84. in 85. him
八、书面表达： (15分)
Hello, I’m Li Ming. Here is a photo of my family. There are three people in my family---my father, my mother and me. My father is tall and handsome. He likes playing basketball in his free time and he plays very well. My mother is a teacher. She has long black hair. She likes growing flowers and our home is always full of flowers. I’m a student. I like playing football and I often play with my classmates after school.
I have a happy family and I love it very much.
书面表达评分原则及各档次的给分范围和要求
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为20分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、语言和结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
(1) 对内容提示的覆盖情况以及表达的清楚程度和合理性。
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性和恰当性。
(3) 上下文语意的逻辑性和连贯性。
3. 评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
(1) 词数少于 60 的，酌情给分。
(2) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3) 书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档次： (17~20 分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达清晰、合理；使用了恰当的词汇和语法结构，且基本无错误；上下文语意连贯、逻辑合理。
第四档次： (13-16分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达比较清晰、合理；使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能 有少量错误，但不影响理解；上下文语意比较连贯、逻辑比较合理。
第三档次： (9-12分)
覆盖了大部分内容提示，表达基本清楚、合理；使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解；上下文语意基本连贯、逻辑基本合理。
第二档次： (5-8 分)
覆盖了部分内容提示，所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解；上下文语意不够连贯、逻辑不够合理。
第一档次： (1-4 分)
覆盖了少量内容提示，所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构非常单调，错误很多，严重影响理解；上下文语意不连贯、逻辑不合理。
注意：如表达出现以下情况：未能传递任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。建议判零分。
