2024-2025学年度九年级英语第一学期阶段性教学质量监测
（Unit1-Unit9）
一、听说应用
A. 听句子（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
1. Where is Alice
(
A
B
C
)
2. What made the speaker wake up
(
A
B
C
)
3. How did the speaker plan to go to work today
(
A
B
C
)
4. Which picture does the speaker talk about
(
A
B
C
)
5. What film did Jack probably act in
(
A
B
C
)
B. 听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
6. Where will Anna go this afternoon
A. To the railway station. B. To the movie theater. C. To the airport.
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
7. What does Kate do when she is alone at home
A. She does housework. B. She plays computer games. C. She listens to music.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
8. When will the train leave
A. At 8:00. B. At 8:30. C. At 9:00.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9. Why could NOT Emma attend the party
A. Because she had to go to her mother’s office.
B. Because she had to look after her sister.
C. Because she had to do her homework.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
10. How long will Bob’s parents be away on business in September
A. For five days. B. For eight days. C. For twelve days.
听第六段对话，回答第11-12小题。
11. What does Ted have to do now
A. Have a rest. B. Cook dinner. C. Send emails.
12. What time is it now
A. 6:00 pm. B. 6:30 pm. C. 7:00 pm.
听第七段对话，回答第13-15小题。
13. How does Dick look now
A. Worried. B. Tired. C. Nervous.
14. What happens to Dick’s alarm clock
A. It is lost. B. It is broken. C. It is at his friend’s.
15. Who will wake Lucy up tomorrow morning
A. Her alarm clock. B. Her brother. C. Her parents.
C. 听短文（本题共 5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。短文听两遍。
16. Where is the piano
A. In the study room. B. In the bedroom. C. In the living room.
17. What colour are the walls of the kitchen now
A. Light green. B. Brown. C. Dark green.
18. What does Dream Garden House provide
A. Breakfast. B. Lunch. C. Dinner.
19. How much does the smallest bedroom cost for a week
A. 30 pounds. B. 60 pounds. C. 66 pounds.
20. What is on the walls in the hallway (走廊)
A. Some maps. B. Lily’s paintings. C. Lisa’s family photos.
D. 听填信息（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到一个男孩与朋友去观看恐怖片的经过和观看后的心情。请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡。短文听两遍。
Peter saw a scary (恐怖的) movie Before the movie: Peter received a(n) (21) ________ from one of his friends when he was playing computer games at home. Peter put his wallet into his bag and (22) ________ to the cinema. Peter (23) ________ to watch the movie. Peter and his friends bought the (24) ________ and went inside. After the movie: Peter was too (25) ________ to sleep. Peter kept all his lights on.
E. 情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳答案，选项中有一项为多余选项。
A. I help my mother cook. B. When and where shall we meet C. Are you free this Saturday morning D. What housework do you have to do E. How often do you do the housework F. Would you like to play basketball with me after school
Bruce: Hi, Ma Tao. (26) _________
Ma Tao: I’d like to, but I have to go home and do the housework.
Bruce: (27) _________
Ma Tao: I have to clean the room and wash the car.
Bruce: (28) _________
Ma Tao: Three times a week. (29) _________
Bruce: Yes.
Ma Tao: Can we play basketball then
Bruce: Sure! (30) _________
Ma Tao: What about meeting at the school gate at 8:00 am
Bruce: OK! See you then.
Ma Tao: See you.
语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
I am the most beautiful cup in the world, but you don’t know what has happened to me.
Once I was red and looked ugly. I was rolled and struck (捶打) over and over 31 my master. I shouted out, “Let me alone.” But he only 32 , “Not yet.” Then I was put on 33 wheel which was moving, and suddenly I was pushed to move around and around. “Stop!” I cried. But my master only shook his head. Then he put me in the oven (炉). I was fired at a very high heat. I wondered why he wanted to burn me, 34 I cried and knocked at the door. But he just shook his head.
Finally, the door opened. He put 35 on the table, and I began to become cool. Then I was polished (擦亮). After that, my master brushed and painted me all over. 36 terrible the smell was! I thought I would die. “Stop!” I cried. He only shook his head. Then suddenly I 37 into the second oven. This oven was twice as 38 as the first one and I couldn’t breathe at all. I begged (乞求). However, my master shook his head again. I nearly lost hope.
An hour later, he handed me a mirror and said, “Look at yourself.” I was 39 and said, “That’s not me. Why am I so beautiful ” “I want you 40 ,” my master said, “without those pains, you would never be a perfect product.”
31. A. to B. with C. by
32. A. smiles B. will smile C. smiled
33. A. a B. an C. the
34. A. so B. because C. but
35. A. I B. me C. mine
36. A. What B. What a C. How
37. A. put B. am put C. was put
38. A. hot B. hotter C. hottest
39. A. surprise B. surprising C. surprised
40. A. remember B. to remember C. remembering
三、完形填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1分，共②10分）
Several years ago, when I was teaching at a middle school, a girl sent me a message. She found someone write a very bad message on her locker (储物柜). She took a picture and then sent it to me 41 help.
A few hours later, I noticed that she had posted that picture on her Instagram (照片墙) and asked if anyone 42 who did that.
The following day, that girl came to me with a boy. She showed me a 43 she had received. It was a heartfelt apology(道歉). I asked her if she knew who had done it, and the boy replied embarrassedly (尴尬地), “It was me. I don’t know why I did it, but I know it was 44 . So I wrote her this note. I 45 wanted to do something to try to make up for my action.”
My heart felt so full of pride for this boy. I told him how 46 he was to come forward and how amazing it was that he did something kind to correct his mistake. I 47 the girl and asked her if she could forgive (原谅) him. Without thinking, she said, “Yes.”
Middle school students are not little children any more, but not grown-ups yet. It is normal that they make mistakes because of their 48 . However, when the girl was in 49 ，she bravely came forward, and the boy came forward to correct his mistake in time. They both 50 bravery and kindness. Although I was a teacher, my students really taught me a lot.
41. A. asking for B. paying for C. waiting for D. caring for
42. A. understood B. forgot C. knew D. realized
43. A. picture B. letter C. gift D. note
44. A. necessary B. wrong C. late D. simple
45. A. just B. never C. ever D. hardly
46. A. humorous B. creative C. brave D. stupid
47. A. believed in B. looked for C. agreed with D. turned to
48. A. looks B. hobbies C. ages D. names
49. A. public B. danger C. trouble D. love
50. A. showed B. gave C. built D. treated
四、阅读理解（本大题15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
A
RED BANK, New Jersey (January 31,2020). These days, women go to space. They sail around the world. They have all kinds of adventures. This wasn’t true hundreds of years ago. Back then, women were expected to stay home. But that didn’t stop these three women from taking off and doing big things.
Jeanne Baret (1740—1807): Baret was a French scientist. She studied plants. And she was the first woman to sail around the world. In 1766, Baret wanted to set sail with a group of scientists. But they were all men. Women weren’t allowed to travel on French navy ships. So Baret dressed up like a man. And she sailed away.
Lady Hester Stanhope (1776—1839): Stanhope was from England. She wanted to travel. She traveled throughout the Middle East by herself. And she led an archaeological(考古学的) dig there. She was the first woman to do this.
Nellie Bly (1864—1922): Bly was a reporter. In 1887, she wrote a story about hidden problems at a hospital. She dressed up like a patient at the hospital. Then she wrote a six-part report. The story made Bly well-known. It also led the way for other women reporters. Two years later, Bly set a world record. She traveled around the world in 72 days!
51. Jeanne Baret was from _________.
A. England B. Italy C. France D. Africa
52. A record traveling around the world in 72 days was set by ________.
Red Ban B. Jeanne Baret C. Lady Hester Stanhope D. Nellie Bly
53. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage
A. Nellie Bly was a patient in the hospital.
B. All of the three women sailed around the world.
C. Lady Hester Stanhope studied archeology in the Middle East alone.
D. Jeanne Baret was the first woman to travel around the world by sea.
54. From the passage, we know the three women are all _______.
A. beautiful B. kindhearted C. adventurous D. popular
55. The passage is probably from the _______ column (栏目) of a magazine.
A. People B. Science C. Health D. News
B
The smart wristband (智能手环) is a smart device (设备) that we can wear on our wrists. It is especially popular with teenagers. More and more people use a smart wristband in their daily lives.
There are lots of famous brands we can buy online or in physical stores, such as Xiaomi, Apple and Huawei.
Why are smart wristbands so popular
Firstly, for one thing, it is like a watch and it can tell you the time anytime. For another, it is more than a watch. The wristband can also be connected to the mobile phone. You can use it to answer the phone call without taking out your mobile phone in your pocket. It is very convenient.
Secondly, the smart wristband looks fashionable. Most teenagers feel cool to have a smart wristband on their wrists. That’s why we often see teenagers wearing wristbands.
Thirdly, most people have realized the importance of health. Some people do exercise every day to keep fit. Smart wristbands can help them to know how far they have run or how many steps they have taken. With a smart wristband, you can know about your exercise at any time.
However, some parents don’t want their children to have smart wristbands because they think wearing smart wristbands for a long time may cause cancer (癌症). They think the teenagers who wear smart wristbands are under radiation (辐射) all the time. They are harmful.
56. How many advantages are mentioned in the passage
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
57. Most teenagers think it __________ to wear smart wristbands.
A. cool B. healthy C. wise D. excited
58. Some parents don’t want their children to have smart wristbands because they
think __________.
A. smart wristbands are too expensive B. using smart wristbands is a waste of time
C. smart wristbands are bad for their study D. smart wristbands are bad for their health
59. The underlined word “convenient” probably means ________ in this passage.
A. necessary B. important C. easy D. modern
60. The passage is mainly about ________.
A. what a wristband is B. how to choose a wristband
C. who should wear a wristband D. when to wear a wristband
C
配对阅读 左栏是5个人的情绪问题，右栏给出了七种建议。请根据每个人的要求，为他们选择合适的建议。
61. Cathy is going to take the big exams. She is so stressed because it can influence her future. The biggest problem now is how she can prepare for the exam. 62. Jenny’s best friend got angry with her because she didn’t let her copy in the exam. They haven’t talked to each other for several days. She wonders what she can do. 63. Andy is unhappy because her parents always compare her with other children. She knows they hope she can be better, but they never care about her feelings. 64. Luke heard that he has to choose courses after entering senior high school. That makes him really worried a lot. How can he make a good choice 65. Anna sometimes feels life is so boring without anything interesting. There’s endless homework to do. She doesn’t think study is the only thing students should do. A. Teenagers should learn to make early decisions about careers (职业) and life. First of all, ask yourself what you really like and want to be. Then choose the subjects that help you realize your dream. B. I agree with you. Life should be colorful. You should learn to manage your time and balance your study and hobbies. Try to spare some time to do the things you are interested in. C. As a ninth-grader, you should keep cool and make good use of your time. The first thing is to list everything you are not sure about and ask your teacher for help. D. It’s normal to have problems between friends. Why not invite her to see a movie. It’s a good chance to communicate with each other. E. Being a good kid is so hard sometimes. You should let your mom and dad know how you feel. And tell them that you also want to do better and are always trying your best. F. Everything you are learning decides your future. Do lots of exercise and keep healthy. It helps you to be more active. G. Tell your parents that other kids are similar to you. They play computer games, too. And also they make fun of others sometimes. They are not the best.
短文填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）（注意：每空一词！）
with people difference wheelchair way he easy because make try when difficult
Thirteen-year-old Sean Nichols plays basketball and rides horses. That surprises people 66.________ Sean uses a wheelchair.
“If someone has a physical disability (残疾), he can also do things that other 67.________ can,” Sean explains. “He has to do it in a 68.________ way.”
When Sean was a baby，he had an illness that made walking impossible for him. As he started school each year, his mom would talk with his classmates to help the kids understand why Sean used a 69._______.
He also 70.________ speeches at a nearby university each year and works with people who are studying physical therapy (理疗). He helps them understand what it's like to live with a disability and learn 71.________ to treat kids with problems like him.
Sean finds lots of ways to increase disability awareness (意识). For example, he and 72._______ coaches show wheelchair basketball to people. People become interested in the game so they get to try it out. “It's funny to see all the people say, 'Oh，this is going to be 73._______.' before they try, but after 74. it, they will take back their words!” Sean says.
Sean’s goal is to change how people 75._______ disabilities are seen. “If a person later sees someone with a disability, he will see a person,” he says, “like himself.”
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A．回答问题（本题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
请阅读下面这篇文章，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整，并把答案写在答题卡指定的位置。
The year 2022 is a big year for sports in China. That's because it held the 24th Winter Olympic Games. And the year 2023 will also be a big year for sports in Hangzhou because the 19th Asian Games will be held in Hangzhou.
On August 6, 2018, the official emblem (会徽) for the Hangzhou Asian Games came out. It will be the third Chinese city to hold the Asian Games after Beijing and Guangzhou in 1990 and 2010. The emblem called “Surging Tides (潮汐)” includes the following parts: a Chinese fan, the Qiantang River, a tidal bore (怒潮), a running track, the Internet icon and the glowing red sun of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
To make the Beijing Games a great success, Chinese people worked hard to prepare. Beijing built a great number of roads and stadiums, including the famous National Olympic Sports Center and Olympic Village.
For the 2022 Asian Games, Hangzhou has already started building 33 sports venues (场馆). The themes (主题) for the Hangzhou Asian Games are “green, smart, economical and civilized”, so all the Games’ buildings will be environmentally friendly.
76．Why will the year 2023 be a big year for sports in Hangzhou
_________________________________________________________________________77．When did the official emblem for the Hangzhou Asian Games come out
_________________________________________________________________________78．Where were the 2010 Asian Games held in China
_________________________________________________________________________79．How many sports venues has Hangzhou already started building
_________________________________________________________________________80．What will all the Games' buildings be like
_________________________________________________________________________
B．书面表达（本题15分）根据要求完成短文写作，请将作文写在答题卡指定的位置上。
（书面表达内容看答题卡。）
刚刚过去的2022年北京冬奥会再次让体育运动成为人们关注的社会话题之一，奥运精神和热爱运动的精神也一直在中国传递，学校也提倡同学们积极参加体育运动。请你以此为话题向学校英语报写一篇短文，内容包括：
(1)．谈谈体育运动的好处；（至少两点）
(2)．谈谈你是怎么备战体育中考(the P.E. exam)的；（至少两点）
(3)．呼吁同学们积极参加体育锻炼。
作文要求：
(1)．不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和学生的真实姓名。
(2)．语句连贯，词数80个左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数。
There is no doubt that sports benefit us in many ways._______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________九年级英语参考答案及评分标准
听力理解(共30小题，每小题1分，共30分)
1-5 CCAAB 6-10 CABBB 11-15 CABBC 16-20 CAABB
21. message 22. drove（drive扣0.5）
23. agreed（agree扣0.5） 24. tickets（ticket扣0.5）
25. afraid 26-30 FDECB
二、语法选择（本大题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
31-35. CCAAB 36-40. CCACB
三、完形填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
41-45 ACDBA 46-50 CDCCA
四、阅读理解（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
51-55 CDDCA 56-60 CADCA 61-65 CDEAB
短文填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
because 67. people/kids/children/persons 68. different 69. wheelchair
70. makes/gives 71. how/skills/ways 72. his 73. easy 74. trying 75. with
六、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
76. Because the 19th Asian Games will be held in Hangzhou（in 2023）·
77. The official emblem for the Hangzhou Asian Games/It came out on August 6, 2018./(On) August 6, 2018.．简答没有介词不扣分
78. They were held in Guangzhou．/(In) Guangzhou．(回答Beijing and Guangzhou给一分）.简答没有介词不扣分
79. Hangzhou has already started building 33 sports venues./33 (sports venues).
80. All the Games’ buildings/They will be environmentally friendly./Environmentally friendly．（只回答environmentally或只回答friendly得0分）
只要能答对信息（斜杠后为必答信息），句子语法正确，语义完整就可以给满分。
不扣分：
没有使用代词而是用了问句上的原文做主语回答不扣分。
简答不扣分。
扣分：
标点符号错误，每处扣0.5分。
句子开头没有大写、人名没有大写，每处扣0.5分。
回答问题信息不完整，每漏一处扣0.5分。多余信息扣0.5
回答内容出现单词拼写错误、时态错误、单复数、所有格错误或主谓一致错误等，每处扣0.5分。
必答信息错误，不给分。整句或大部分照抄短文内容，但包含完整的必答信息，扣1分。
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
There is no doubt that sports benefit us in many ways．First, sports can not only make us healthy and strong, but also can help us reduce the pressure．Second, doing sports can help us make friends with more people．It will make us more friendly．
The PE exam is drawing near．I’m busy preparing for it．I always practice carefully in each PE class with the help of the teacher．What's more, I run for twenty minutes with my friends on the playground after school every day．Through hard work, we have made great progress．
All in all, it's helpful for us to do sports． So, let's go out to exercise．And I hope every student can get a great score in the PE exam．
参考范文：
评分标准：作文的评分建议按照语言、内容和连贯三项指标分别给分，最后累计作为该题的总得分。
一定要从语言、内容、连贯三大项目整体评价文章，避免只按语法错误多少评分。
2. 本作文的内容分5分：
(1)．运动的好处1分（两点） 1+1分
(2)．你是怎么备战的？（两点） 1+1分
(3)．呼吁 1分
3. 语言部分 8 分 ：
第一档：8分， 要求：内容涵盖所有要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有个别语言错误。
第二档：6-7分， 要求：内容涵盖绝大多数要点，表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少数语言错误。
第三档：4-5分， 要求：内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有一些语言错误。
第四档：1-3 分， 要求：内容涵盖部分要点，能写出少数正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错误较多。
第五档：0 分, 空白卷或完全没有相关内容。
确定语言分档次时要考虑内容的覆盖，没少一个要点，语言分降一个档次评分。
4. 连贯性2分 有相应的连贯即可，如能合理使用过渡语或过渡词则更佳。
注：以上答案及评分标准仅供参考。
