2024-2025学年度上学期七年级阶段素养测试
英 语 试 题
(满分90分, 时间100分钟)
注意事项：
1. 本试题分第I 卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分。第I 卷为选择题, 40分；第Ⅱ卷为非选择题, 50分； 共90分。
2. 答卷前务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号按要求填写在答题卡上的相应位置。
3. 第I卷每题选出答案后, 都必须用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号(ABCD)涂 黑, 如需改动, 必须先用橡皮擦干净, 再改涂其它答案。
4. 第Ⅱ卷必需用0. 5毫米黑色签字笔书写到答题卡题号所指示的答题区域, 不得超出 预留范围。
5. 在草稿纸、试卷上答题均无效。
第I 卷(选择题共40分)
一、完形填空 (共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
阅读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后从短文后各题所给的A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中, 选 择最佳选项。
My name is Rosy White. Rosy is my first name. I'm a(n) 1 girl. I come from London. Now I want to 2 you something about my family.
There are 3 people in my family---my parents, my two brothers and I. My father's name is Paul. He's a 4 . Everyone likes him very much, because they can have fun in his class. And my father is very good at playing football, so all the boys in his class 5 to make friends with him. Emma is my mother. She is a doctor. She is busy(忙的)from Monday to Friday, so she doesn't have any 6 to stay with us. But on Saturday and Sunday, she 7 most of her time with us.
Peter and Michael are my brothers. They are in the 8 school, so they go to school and come home together every day. They like 9 stories because they make them laugh. They like watching 10 games on TV, too. Their favorite basketball star is Kobe Bryant(科比).
1. A. American B. Australia C. Chinese D. English
2. A. ask B. tell C. give D. find
3. A. three B. four C. five D. six
4. A. doctor B. farmer C. teacher D. singer
5. A. want B. need C. help D. start
6. A. fun B. time C. hobby D. notice
7. A. makes B. has C. changes D. spends
8. A. same B. similar C. other D. different
9. A. funny B. smart C. full D. special
10. A. tennis B. volleyball C. basketball D. baseball
二、阅读理解 (共15小题, 每小题2分, 共30分)
阅读下面表格或短文, 然后从每小题 A 、B 、C 、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题的 最佳答案。
A
My name is Lucy and I have a cat, Custard. She is three years old. She's from my friend Ann. Custard is yellow and white and she likes fish best. She is cute. She likes playing with me at home.
I'm Jack. My pet's name is Alex. He is a black dog from my cousin. Alex is one year old His favorite food is meat. He likes taking a walk with me and my grandpa in the evening.
I'm Laura. I have a beautiful bird, Polly. Polly is green and yellow and she is four years old. She's from my grandpa. She likes apples best. She can say “Hello” and “Goodbye”
11. What is Custard's favorite food
A. Fish. B. Meat. C. Apples. D. Vegetables.
12. Where is Jack's pet from
A. His friend. B. His cousin. C. His grandpa. D. His father
13. Which of the following is TRUE(正确的)
A. Lucy's cat is four years old. B. Jack's pet is yellow and white.
C. Laura likes green and yellow. D. Polly can speak English.
B
This is a picture of Mary's room. What can you see in her room A lot of things are in it! There is a nice picture on the wall. Oh, what's that It's a map of the world. It's on the wall, too. There is a white desk and a red bed on the floor. Every day after school, Mary does her homework in her room. Can you see her schoolbag It's on her desk. You can see three English books on the desk, too. But her pencil box is on her bed. What is that under the desk It's a baseball. She is on the school baseball team. Everyone says she is good at it. Where is Mary's hat Oh, it's on the bed. You can see a red hat on the chair. It's not Mary's. It's her sister Susan's. Where is Susan She is on the sofa. Look, she is reading a story book! She likes tennis very much.
14. What can we see on the wall
A. A picture and a map. B. A picture and a hat.
C. A schoolbag and a hat. D. A map and a schoolbag.
15. What does the underlined “it” refer to(指代)
A. Homework. B. English. C. Baseball. D. Tennis.
16. Where is Mary's hat
A. It's on the bed. B. It's on the chair. C. It's on the desk. D. It's on the floor.
17. What is Susan doing now
A. Doing her homework. B. Playing tennis.
C. Reading a storybook. D. Playing baseball.
C
Many people like to go hiking. They enjoy beautiful nature and time with friends or family. If you want to go for a hike, follow these tips(技巧).
Find a good day. Fine weather is the most important for a nice hike. If the weather is fine, you can do a lot of things, like riding horses, going bike riding, flying kites, playing ball games and swimming in the river.
Go with the people you like. Going with the person with the same interest as you will make the trip wonderful
Find the right place. Different people have different ideas about the places. Some like going to the mountains. Some like going to the lakes. Others even like going hiking in the desert (沙漠). For me, I would like to go to the beach for a hike. I like to walk along the beach, listen to the sound of the sea and watch children play.
Prepare(准备)well before going hiking. To have a nice hike, you must have comfortable shoes, enough(足够的)water and some food.
18. How many tips does the writer(作者)give us
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six.
19. Where does the writer want to go for a hike
A. The mountains. B. The lakes. C. The desert. D. The beach.
20. What does the word “comfortable ”mean in Chinese
A. 宽松的 B. 炫酷的 C. 普通的 D. 舒适的
21. What does the passage(短文)mainly tell us
A. Some tips on hiking. B. The time for hiking
C. The places for hiking. D. A good way for exercising.
D
Schools in America are similar to the schools in China. But there are also some differences. Chinese students go to school after a long summer holiday, usually from July to September. American schools also begin in September. There are two terms in a school year both in America and in China. The first term is from September to January, and the second is from February to June. Most American children begin to go to school when they are five years old. But in China, the legal age(法定年龄)for entering primary school is six. So, American children enter schools earlier(更早)than Chinese children. Most American children are seventeen or eighteen years old when they finish high school.
In America, high school students take only five or six subjects each term. But in China, students usually have more subjects. American students usually go to the same class every day,
and they have homework for every class. Chinese students have less(较少的)homework now, so after class, they do a lot of interesting things. Some are about sports, like swimming and ball games. Some are about art, like singing, dancing and drawing. Students have a lot of fun from these activities.
22. When do schools in America begin
A. In June. B. In July. C. In August. D. In September.
23. How many subjects do American high school students take each term
A. Two or three. B. Three or five. C. Five or six. D. Six or seven.
24. Which of the following is TRUE
A. In America, the first term is from January to August.
B. Chinese children must go to school when they're five.
C. American students have no homework after school.
D. Chinese students have less homework now.
25. What is the best title(题目)for the passage
A. School life in China and America. B. Different subjects in China and America.
C. American students' school year. D. Chinese students' happy school life.
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题, 共50分)
三、词汇运用(共15小题, 满分15分)
第一节根据音标和词性写出单词(共5小题, 每小题1分, 满分5分)
26. /i: t /adj. ____________ 27. /'b tl/n. ___________ 28. /gre d/n. ____________
29. /sma: t/adj._____________ 30. /'k r t/n. __________________
第二节单词拼写(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
根据首字母或汉语提示, 在答题卡上写出下列句子中单词的完全形式。
31. Jim likes swimming and it is his h ____________.
32. He usually s _________ an hour doing his homework every day.
33. My brother and sister are b__________ teachers in a middle school.
34. That girl is my friend and her f_________ name is Emma Miller.
35. There is a teachers' building a ___________ from the school hall.
36. We have many ____________ (活动)at school every day.
37. My grandpa's pet carrot can ___________ (甚至)speak some English.
38. You can find some __________ (信息)about the ping-pong game on the website.
39. We should ____________ (问候)our teachers and classmates every day.
40. It's ____________ (重要)for us to learn English well
四、语法填空 (共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式(每空不多于三个 单词)。
My name is Tom. I'm a student in Grade Seven. Look! This is my room. There is a desk, a bed 41 _______ a bookcase in my room. There 42_______ (be)some things on my desk. This is my schoolbag. A dictionary, an English book and three 43 _______ (eraser)are in it. You can 44 _______ (see)a clock and a cup on my desk, too.
I like basketball and I have 45 _______ basketball. Where is it now Is it under my desk No, it is under my bed. Look! This is my 46 ________ (brother)ping-pong bat. I often play ping-pong 47 ________ him after school. He plays it 48 _________(real)well! What are 49 ________(this) They're my music books. I like 50 _________ (listen)to music very much. What about you
五 、阅读表达(共5小题, 每小题2分, 满分10分)
阅读下面短文, 回答短文后面的各个小题。
Hi, I'm Lily from Ireland. I love my big family. Here's a photo of us. I'm the one with the pink hat
This is my dad, Fred, on the left. He's very handsome. He often plays tennis with me. My little brother, Sam, is on his knee. Sam is seven and he likes chess very much. My mum, Jane, is on the right. She's beautiful and kind. She always reads me a story at night. My grandparents, Jack and Sarah, are in the middle. They're my dad's parents. They have a dog. His name is Oscar.
My grandparents have three grandchildren: Sam, my cousin Lucy, and me. They often say
I'm their favorite grandchild, but I think they say the same thing to all of us!
51. What color is Lily's hat
52. How old is Lily's brother
53. What does Lily's mum always do at night
54. Where are Lily's grandparents in the photo
55. What do Lily's grandparents often say to her
六、写作(共1题, 满分15分)
请用英语写一篇短文, 向同学们介绍你的好友Peter。
要点包括：
1. 国家：英国。
2. 家庭成员：父母(都是教师);一个妹妹(5岁, 喜欢唱歌)。
3. 个人情况：喜欢黑色；最喜欢的运动是网球, 经常和朋友打球；现在与父母一起住在北京；最喜欢的食物是北京烤鸭(Beijing roast duck)。
注意：1. 词数60左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节, 以使行文连贯。
My Friend
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2024-2025学年度上学期七年级阶段素养测试
英 语 试 题
参考答案及评分标准
第I 卷 （选择题 共40分）
（一）参考答案
一、完形填空（共10个小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分）
1-5 DBCCA 6-10 BDAAC
三、阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分, 共30分）
11-15 ABDAC 16-20 ACBDD 21-25 ADCDA
（二）评分说明：
1. 1—10小题, 每小题1分；11-25小题, 每小题2分；
2. 凡与答案不符者, 不得分。
第II卷（非选择题, 共50分）
三、词汇运用（共15小题, 满分15分）
（一）参考答案：
第一节：根据音标和词性写出单词（共5小题, 每小题1分, 满分5分）
26. each 27. bottle 28. grade 29. smart 30. carrot
第二节：单词拼写（共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分）
31. hobby 32. spends 33. both 34. full 35. across
36. activities 37. even 38. information 39. greet 40. important
（二）评分说明:
1. 26—30小题每小题1分, 共5分；31—40小题每小题1分, 共10分;2. 凡与答案不符者, 不得分。
四、语法填空(共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分)
（一）参考答案：
41. and 42. are 43. erasers 44. see 45. a/one
46. brother’s 47. with 48. really 49. these 50. listening/to listen
（二）评分说明:
1. 本题共10分, 每小题1分； 2. 凡与答案不符者, 不得分。
五、阅读表达 （共5小题, 每小题2分, 满分10分）
（一）参考答案：
51. It’s pink. / Pink.
52. 7. / He is 7 years old. / 7 years old. / Seven years old. / Seven.
53. She always reads Lily a story at night.
54. They are in the middle. / In the middle.
55. They often say she (Lily) is their favourite grandchild.
（二）评分说明:
1. 本题计10分, 每小题2分； 2. 虽与参考答案表达方式不同, 但意思一致, 无语言错误, 即可得相应分数。
六、写作（满分15分）
（一）参考答案：
My Friend
I have a friend. His name is Peter. He is from the UK. There are four people in his family. His parents are both teachers. They are kind. His sister is 5 years old. She likes singing.
He likes black. His favourite sport is tennis. He often plays it with his friends after school. Now he lives in Beijing with his parents. His favourite food is Beijing roast duck.
（二）评分说明：
1. 文章内容切题, 虽与参考答案不符, 只要合情合理均可得分；
2. 恰当使用连接词使文章的衔接过渡自然合理；
3. 时态、句型和词语运用恰当, 表述完整准确, 书写工整。
请按下列五个档次评分：
1. 短文通顺完整, 表达清楚流畅, 语言基本无误, 13－15分；
2. 短文较通顺完整, 表达基本清楚, 语言有少量错误, 10－12分；
3. 能写明基本要点, 短文不够通顺完整, 语言有较多错误, 但尚能达意, 7－9分；
4. 仅能写明部分要点, 短文不完整, 语言错误多, 影响意思表达, 4－6分；
5. 仅能写出与文章有关的单词或片语, 0—3分。
