福建省福州金山中学等九校联考2023-2024七年级下学期期末考试英语试卷(无答案无音频及听力原文)

2023—2024 学年第二学期期末考试
七年级 英语试卷
满分 150分;考试时间 120分钟
友情提示:请将所有答案填写到答题卡上!请不要错位越界答题!
Ⅰ.听力(共三节,20小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 30分)
第一节听句子 听下面五个句子,从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与其内容相
符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二节听下面七段对话,从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答
案。(每段对话读两遍)
听第 1段对话,回答第 6小题。
6. Where are the two speakers
A. At home. B. In an office. C. On the street.
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听第 2段对话,回答第 7小题。
7. How does Sandy usually come to school
A. On foot. B. By bike. C. By bus.
听第 3段对话,回答第 8小题。
8. Which subject does Billy like best
A. Physics. B. Math. C. P.E.
听第 4段对话,回答第 9小题。
9. What did Lily do yesterday
A. Flew kites. B. Read books. C. Did some shopping.
听第 5段对话,回答第 10、11小题。
10. What are they talking about
A. Their favorite subjects. B. Their family. C. Their favorite day.
11. What does Mike often do on Sunday
A. Has a music class. B. Visits the museum. C. Looks after his sister.
听第 6段对话,回答第 12、13小题。
12. How is the weather
A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy.
13. Where will they meet
A. At West Hill. B. Near their school. C. At Mary’s home.
听第 7段对话,回答第 14、15小题。
14. Where does Dana plan to go for her summer holiday
A. Shanghai. B. Beijing. C. Xishuangbanna.
15. What would Jerry like to do in July
A. Learn to cook. B. Visit his grandparents. C. Climb the Great Wall.
第三节听下面短文根据你所听到的内容,完成以下表格,每空填一词。(短
文读三遍)
Country How to celebrate birthdays
America have a party, get lots of 16 and have a birthday cake
France 17 out
Thailand light 18 tall candles before birthday
Japan be in new clothes
19_____ have cakes, eat 20 noodles or eggs
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Ⅱ.选择填空 (共 15小题;每小题 1分,满分 15分)
从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。
21.The ________ letter in the word “danger” is ________ “n”.
A.three, an B.three, a C.third, an
22.—Do you like living in the countryside?
—Yes. I can have a ______ life there.
A. interesting B. noisy C. quiet
23. —Jack gets up very early every morning.
—Yes, he is ______ late for school.
A. always B. never C. often
24.—I want to take some beautiful pictures on the farm.
—Then you can take a ________ with you.
A. camera B. fan C. tent
25. —Do you like the book Harry Potter
— It’s so interesting. ______ of us likes it very much.
A. each B. both C. all
26. —Tom is good at playing basketball.
—Yes, but he _______ play basketball at the age of six.
A. can B. could C. couldn’t
27.—What time is the meeting over
— I think it will_________ 30 minutes.
A. begin B. have C. last
28. —Would you like to watch a movie with me
—I’d love to, ______ work must come first.
A. but B. or C. so
29.—May I speak to Jane?
—Sorry, she ________a bath in the bathroom.
A.has B.is having C.had
30. —________ did you stay in Shanghai —A week. We had a good time there.
A. How often B. How far C. How long
31. —Tom, you don’t look well. What’s wrong
—Nothing. I just ________ to watch the FIFA soccer game.
A. got up B. stayed up C. put up
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32. —Please don’t take photos here. Look at the sign, “No photos”.
—Sorry, I ________ see it.
A. don’t B. didn’t C. can’t
33. There will be a food festival ________June 2 to June7 .
A. on B. between C. from
34. — What does the sign mean, mom
— It means we_________ here.
A. can’t play B. can’t park cars C. can’t stop
35. —Where is the washing room
— _______________
A.You are right. B. This way,please! C. Sorry, I don’t know.
Ⅲ.完形填空(共 10小题;每小题 1.5分,满分 15分)
从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
“Miss Smith!What ugly(难看的)hands Mary has!”says Daisy,as she
walks home from school with her 36 .
“Daisy, I think Mary's 37 are beautiful,” says Miss Smith. “Why They
are red and hard. They look ugly when she tries to play on a 38 !” Daisy says.
Miss Smith takes Daisy's hands in hers, and says, “Your hands are very soft
and white, just the hands look 39 on a piano, but they don't have the same
beauty as Mary's hands do. Shall I tell you what the difference is ”
“Yes, please,Miss Smith,” Daisy 40 Miss Smith,with eyes wide open.
“Well, Mary's hands are very 41 . They wash clothes; they make fires;
they are always trying to help her poor, hard-working mother,” Miss Smith says.
“Also, they wash and dress the 42 in her neighborhood(街坊); they mend
(修理)their model planes and dress their dolls (玩偶).”
“I will 43 think Mary's hands are ugly any more, Miss Smith,” Daisy
says that with tears in eyes. “I am happy to hear you say that and I must tell you
that they are beautiful because they 44 others happily.”
“Oh,I feel so ashamed(惭愧的)of myself and so 45 ,” says Daisy,
looking into her teacher’s face with shining eyes.
“My dear, beauty doesn’t lie in(在于)how one looks but what he or she
does.”
36. A. teacher B. mother C. sister
37.A. eyes B. clothes C.hands
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38. A. violin B. piano C. guitar
39. A. beautiful B. different C. special
40. A. looks after B.looks for C.looks at
41. A. small B.busy C.big
42.A. parents B. farmers C.children
43. A. always B. never C. sometimes
44. A. help B. ask C. meet
45.A. happy B. angry C. sorry
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共两节,25小题;满分 45分)
第一节阅读下面 A、B、C、D四篇短文,根据短文内容,从题中所给的 A、
B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳答案。(共 20小题;每小题 2分,满分 40
分)
A
Dear Amy,
Today I want to tell you something about my neighborhood.
I live on a big street. On the left of my house is a big park. The police station
is across from my house. There is a hotel on the left of the park. Between the hotel
and a Chinese restaurant there is a small bank. A big supermarket is across from
the Chinese restaurant. The food in the restaurant is really yummy. We all like it
and often eat out there.
On weekends, my family often play sports in the park. My mother often
shops in the supermarket.
What about your neighborhood
Julia
Dear Julia,
I live on a small street. My house is in the middle of the street. In front of my
house there is a small supermarket. On the left of the supermarket is a library and
on the right of the supermarket is a post office. Behind my house there is a small
park with a few trees and a small garden. At the end of the street there is a hill
with lots of trees.
On weekends, my family often climb the hill. It takes us about 15 minutes to
walk there from our house.
Amy
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46.Julia’s house is across from ________.
A.the post office B.the police station
C.the supermarket D.the bank
47.What does the underlined word “yummy” mean
A.Delicious. B.Cute. C.Beautiful. D.Dear.
48.What do Julia’s family do in the park on weekends
A.Read books. B.Eat lunch. C.Play sports. D.Take photos.
49.Where is Amy’s house
A.Across from the park. B.In front of the park.
C.Next to the park. D.Behind the park.
50.We can know from the two letters that ________.
A.Julia and Amy are talking about their neighborhood
B.Julia’s mother shop in the supermarket every day
C.it’s fifteen minutes’ ride from Amy’s house to the hill
D.both Julia and Amy live on a small street
B
When people want to know the weather, they usually go to the radios, TVs,
newspapers or the Internet. But how about people in the old days In fact, they can
find many weather signs from the nature. Here are some ways. Let’s have a look.
Sky looks different in different weather. So watching sky is a good way to
know the weather in the old days. We can watch the clouds first. Usually, when the
clouds are white and they look very high, it is good weather. But if the clouds are
black and they look low, it may be a rainy day. Second, red sky can also help
people to know the weather. There is an old saying, “Red sky a night, sailors (水手)
are happy. Red sky in the morning, sailors are afraid.” It says when you see red sky
in the evening, you can know tomorrow is a good day. Red sky in the morning
shows that the next day is a rainy day.
Animals can know the weather quickly and they are good indicators. So
watching animals is also a good way to know the weather in the old days. Usually,
when birds fly high in the sky, it’s sunny. Birds fly low and they are very quiet.
Tomorrow may be a rainy day.
51.How is the weather if the clouds are white and high
A.Sunny. B.Rainy. C.Windy. D.Snowy.
52.What can we know from the old saying in Paragraph 2
A.The sky is usually red in the morning.
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B.People can know the weather from red sky.
C.A sailor’s job is not easy.
D.Red sky shows good weather.
53.Which of the following shows that it can be a good day
A.There’s red sky in the morning. B.The clouds are black.
C.Birds fly high in the sky. D.Birds are very quiet in the sky.
54.What can be the weather indicators, according to the passage
a. clouds b. red sky c. sailors d. animals e. noise
A.a, b, e. B.a, c, d. C.c, d, e. D.a, b, d.
55.What does the passage mainly (主要地) tell us
A.Some ways to save animals.
B.Some old sayings.
C.Some ways to know about the weather.
D.Some stories about the weather.
C
The traditional(传统的) Chinese lunar calendar divides the year into 24
solar terms(节气). The solar term culture is still useful today to guide (指导)
people’s lives. People eat special foods, do cultural activities and even have healthy
living tips with each solar term at present. Here are different ways to know
Summer Solstice(夏至).
Summer Solstice, the 10th solar term of the year, falls on June 21 this year. On
the Summer Solstice, daylight lasts the longest for the whole year in the northern
earth. How long is the longest day in China According to the expert, it lasts nearly
17 hours. After this day, daylight hours get shorter and shorter. And temperatures
become higher and higher in the northern part(北方) of China.
There is a saying in Shandong Province, “Eat dumplings on the Winter
Solstice and noodles on Summer Solstice.” People in different areas of Shandong
Province eat chilled noodles(冷面)on this day. Other people around China,
including those in Beijing, also have a tradition of eating noodles. This tradition is
still in our life today, with some exciting activities.
Summer Solstice is the longest day of the year and marks(标志)the first day
of summer. You can take some time to enjoy the warmth and joy in the coming
summer.
56.When is the Summer Solstice this year
A.June 21. B.July 21. C.June 28. D.July 28.
57.What do people in Shangdong Province eat on the day of Summer Solstice
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A.Dumplings. B.Rice dumplings.
C.Chilled noodles. D.Mooncakes.
58.What does the second paragraph mainly talk about
A.What to eat on the Summer Solstice.
B.What to do on the Summer Solstice.
C.Something about the Summer Solstice.
D.The dates of the Summer Solstice.
59.How is the passage organized(组织)
A.①/②③④ B.①/②/③④ C.①②③/④ D.①/②③/④
60.In which part of the newspaper can you read the passage
A.Sports. B.History. C.Travel. D.Culture.
D
Food safety is important and it doesn’t end at our door. The
fridge is a perfect choice(选择) for keeping food safe and fresh, but
it is not a magic box to keep all kinds of food. We should learn how
to store(储存) food correctly in the fridge.
▲ Usually, the higher the shelf is, the higher the temperature will be. So
make use of these different temperatures to get the best out of your food by storing
it on the right shelf. Try to put vegetables and fruit on top shelves. The middle
shelves are for food like burgers, pizza or cream cakes and the bottom(底部)
shelves are for dairy products (乳制品) such as cheese, butter, yogurt and eggs.
Below is a freezer (冷冻室), it is the coldest part of the fridge, so it is perfect for
storing raw (生的) meat and seafood.
Keeping food in the fridge does not kill bacteria (细菌) but it can stop the
bacteria from growing fast. Bacteria can grow quickly in temperatures between 5℃
and 60℃. This is called the Temperature Danger Zone. If you want to get the most
out of your food, the temperature in your fridge needs to be between 0℃ and 5℃.
The freezer temperature should be below -18℃.
Everyone should pay attention to food safety. Hope these tips can help you
keep your food fresh for as long as possible.
61.Which can be put in ▲
A.There are three to four shelves in the fridge.
B.Different food should be put on different shelves.
C.The temperature in the fridge is much colder than outside.
D.The temperature in the fridge is different from shelf to shelf.
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62.What food is put in the right place
①Apples—the top shelf
②Eggs—the middle shelf
③Seafood—the bottom shelf
④Raw meat—the freezer
A.①② B.②③ C.①④ D.③④
63.What do we know about the Temperature Danger Zone
A.Bacteria grow fast there.
B.Food can’t be put in this zone.
C.It is harmful to vegetables and fruit.
D.Its temperature is between 0℃ and 5℃.
64.Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A.Bacteria can’t live in the fridge.
B.The best temperature for butter is close to 0℃.
C.Food safety is the most important thing at home.
D.The fridge is like a magic box keeping all kinds of food.
65.What is the purpose of the passage
A.To ask people to put food in the fridge.
B.To introduce a useful tool to keep food.
C.To share some advice on using the fridge.
D.To show the importance of food safety at home.
第二节阅读下面短文,从所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选
项,使短文通顺连贯,意思完整。(共 5小题;每小题 1分,满分 5分)
E
We can enjoy a one-day weekend every week. Maybe one day is too short, but
we can try to plan the time well. _66____
★Get up early. The weekend is not only a time to sleep in. _67____ That’s too
bad. You can have more free time if you get up early.
★_68___ We have to spend much time on our homework. You can feel better
if you do your homework early. You can get up early and do your homework first.
69____ I often do my homework in the morning. So I don’t have to worry about
(担心)it in the rest of the time.
★Go out for fun. Think about what you like to do. 70____ You can also visit a
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museum, a zoo or a park.
A. Here are some ideas.
B. Do the homework early.
C. Some of us get up for lunch!
D. And then you can have free time to play well.
E. Plan a sports activity like running in the park.
Ⅴ.情景交际(共 5小题;每小题 2分,满分 10分)
根据情景提示,完成下列各题。
71.对方为你送上生日祝福,你可以这样回应:
___________________________________________.
72.你想知道对方是否会说日语,可以这么问:
_____________________________________________
73.你想知道 Lily的出生地点,可以这样问她:
_____________________________________ , Lily
74.同桌买了一把新尺子,你想知道这把尺子的长度,可以这样问:
__________________________________________?
75.班主任宣布一条新的班规:禁止带玩具到学校。她会这么说:
Don't .
Ⅵ.看图写话(共 5小题;每小题 2分,满分 10分)
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词,写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
76 77 78 79 80
76. now _______________________________________________
77. heavily,yesterday _____________________________________
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78. had better,take _____________________________________________
79. can,age _______________________________________________
80. season,for _____________________________________________
Ⅶ.短文填空(共 10小题;每小题 1分,满分 10分)
阅读下面短文,根据语境以及所给单词的提示,在每个空格内填入一个恰当
的词,要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确,使短文意思完整、行文连贯。
Yesterday I went back to the countryside to visit my grandfather, 81 it
was his sixtieth birthday. My grandfather 82 (have) two sons and two
daughters. They decided to celebrate 83 (they) father’s birthday.
My parents bought a lot of delicious food and some new clothes 84 him.
My uncle killed(杀) a pig and some fish for the big 85 . I was happy to see
my cousins. We ran in the yard, went 86 (fish) in the pool and played all
kinds of games.
In the afternoon, we 87 (sit) around the table. There was a very big
cake 88 sixty candles on it. We 89 (sing) Happy Birthday To You to
my grandfather. We all enjoyed 90 (we) that night.
Ⅷ. 书面表达 (满分 15 分)
91.假如你是李华,暑假即将到来,你的笔友 Tom打算来福州游玩。请根据
以下内容给 Tom写一封信。
注意:
1.词数不少于 70词。
2.必须包含所提示的信息,可适当发挥,开头结尾已给出,不计入总词数;
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3.意思清楚,表达通顺,行文连贯,书写规范;
4.请勿使用真实姓名、校名。
参考词汇:
三坊七巷 Three Lanes and Seven Alleys、鼓山Mount Gu 、鱼丸 fish ball
Dear Tom,
I’m glad to hear that you plan to come to Fuzhou for a visit during the
summer holiday. _____________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
I’m looking forward to meeting you this summer.
Yours,
Li Hua
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