2022-2023学年第一学期期末调研考试
八年级英语试卷
注意事项：1．本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡相应位置上。
3．答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
听力部分
Ⅰ．听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
1．A．a discussion B．a question C．an invitation
2．A．look up B．look after C．look for
3．A．February 8th B．January 8th C．February 18th
4．A．I am smarter than Jill.
B．Jill is smarter than me. C．Both Jill and I are smart.
5．A．I do well in playing table tennis.
B．I dislike playing table tennis. C．I’m glad to play table tennis.
Ⅱ．听句子，选出该句的最佳答语（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
6．A．Have a good time. B．Sorry to hear that. C．Thank you.
7．A．No problem. B．Yang Lin dances best. C．It’s fantastic.
8．A．Last night. B．Three times a week. C．With my parents.
9．A．Sure, I’d love to. B．Sorry, I don’t think so. C．I don’t have time.
10．A．I’m sorry. B．I think so. C．No, he doesn’t.
Ⅲ．听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共8小题，每小题1分，计8分）
11．What TV show does Molly like
A． B． C．
12．What sport does the man often do during the winter
A． B． C．
13．How often does Mr. Fat exercise
A．Hardly ever. B．Often. C．Sometimes.
14．How many hours does Mr. Fat sleep every night
A．9 hours. B．10 hours. C．6 hours.
15．What kind of food does Mr. Fat like
A．Healthy food. B．Junk food. C．Milk.
16．Where did Ann go on vacation
A．To the US. B．To Australia. C．To England.
17．Who did Ann go on vacation with
A．Her parents. B．Her friends. C．Her grandparents.
18．How was the weather there
A．It was hot. B．It was warm. C．It was rainy.
Ⅳ．听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题，每小题1分，计7分）
19．Where does Lily often go with her parents
A．To the bookshop. B．To the coffee house. C．To the supermarket.
20．What’s across from the bookshop
A．A park. B．A coffee house. C．A supermarket.
21．How is the strawberry milk shake
A．It’s delicious. B．It’s healthy. C．A and B．
22．How many strawberries do we need to make the strawberry milk shake
A．Two. B．Three. C．Eight.
23．What should we do first
A．Cut up the strawberries.
B．Mix the milk and ice cream.
C．Pour the milk into the blender.
24．What should we put in the blender first
A．Strawberry pieces and milk.
B．Ice cream and milk.
C．Strawberry pieces and ice cream.
25．How long does the blender work next
A．For about three minutes. B．For about one minute. C．For about five minutes.
V．听短文填空（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
Information Sheet
26．Tai is ______ years old. 27．Tai is ______ than Miya. 28．They say China is a ______ and beautiful country. 29．Tai likes reading and ______. 30．They go to the movies ______ a month.
笔试部分
Ⅵ．单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31．—Why are you laughing, Daniel
—There is ______ funny in the e and see.
A．anything B．something C．everything D．nothing
32．I take up some ______ like reading books and playing the violin.
A．hobbies B．jobs C．ways D．ideas
33．Walking is good for health. So I ______ walk to school.
A．ever B．never C．hardly ever D．often
34．Of the three boys, John is ______.
A．heavy B．more heavier C．the most heavy D．the heaviest
35．—Mom, I want to watch the TV Program China’s Got Talent now.
—Sorry, you can’t watch it ______ you finish your homework.
A．unless B．so C．if D．after
36．—Jack, let’s have a picnic after school.
—Sorry. I ______ Frank to work on the science report with him yesterday.
A．advised B．expected C．suggested D．promised
37．—It seems that you don’t ______ your daughter’s grades.
—Of course. I do. But as long as she does her best, I will be happy.
A．care about B．bring out C．find out D．make up
38．How much ______ do we need to make a banana milk shake
A．bananas B．apples C．coffee D．milk
39．There ______ an English show. Shall we go and watch it
A．has been B．will be C．was D．were
40．—What time should we go to the science museum
—______. Any time is OK for me.
A．Not at all B．It’s up to you C．How come D．I’m afraid not
Ⅶ．完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）阅读下面短文，从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
American boys and girls love to watch TV. Some children 41 six hours a day in school and four to six hours a day in front of the TV set. Some children even watch TV for eight hours or more on Saturdays or Sundays.
A child can learn geographical（地理学的）things from 42 Some shows help children to learn the news from other parts of the 43 Some programs show people places from other countries or other times in history. Children can watch a play, a concert, or a soccer 44 Lat home. Some programs even 45 children how to use computers or how to cook. It’s 46 to watch TV.
But as the saying goes: Every coin has two sides. One problem from American kids is that they watch 47 TV. They don’t have much 48 to do other activities.
Playing, reading and spending time with friends and families are much 49 than sitting in front of a TV. Another problem is that not all programs are 50 ones. Children also learn something bad from TV.
41．A．make B．take C．spend D．get
42．A．class B．family C．TV D．computer
43．A．family B．school C．world D．class
44．A．game B．player C．team D．club
45．A．teach B．like C．mind D．make
46．A．bad B．fun C．boring D．meaningless
47．A．a little B．little C．too much D．too many
48．A．money B．time C．information D．news
49．A．more meaningless B．better C．worse D．more boring
50．A．bad B．interesting C．good D．boring
Ⅷ．阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，计30分）
阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
2023 Spring Festival Dinner Party Invitation Sincerely invite you to this special event for celebrating Chinese New Year! Enjoy delicious Chinese food. Watch great performances. Experience fun games. Friday, the 20th of January 7:00 pm-11:00 pm New World Hotel, 12th Floor, 2-68 West Nanjing Road We hope to see you there! Please call Ben Smith at 565-7490 Before January 17th
51．What is the dinner party for
A．The Spring Festival. B．New World Hotel’s opening.
C．Ben Smith’s birthday. D．A house warming.
52．When is the dinner party
A．In the afternoon. B．On Friday. C．On January 17th. D．On the 24th of January.
53．Which of the following is Not TRUE according to the invitation
A．Guests can watch great performances at the dinner party.
B．You can e-mail Ben Smith if you would like to go for dinner.
C．Guests can play fun games at the dinner party.
D．Guests can eat delicious Chinese food at the dinner party.
B
What’s the best thing to eat on a hot summer day Maybe you will say it is ice cream. Yes, eating ice cream with some fruit is a great way to cool down. But think before you eat, If your body is hot from playing sports, it’s not the best time to eat ice cream.
If you eat ice cream when your body is hot, it may give your stomach some problems, and you may have a stomachache. You can eat some ice cream after you cool down or have some tea. Just try not to eat much at a time!
People shouldn’t eat or drink anything cold just after dinner. If you want to stay cool and healthy, oranges, bananas and pears can help.
In summer, the weather is hot and the food goes bad easily. You’d better eat clean and fresh food. When you want to eat a cold dish, put some vinegar（醋）in it. If you can’t finish your food and want to eat it again next day, you should cook it and then you can eat it.
54．What’s the Chinese meaning of the underlined word “stomachache”
A．肩疼 B．胃疼，肚子疼 C．背疼 D．四肢疼
55．Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage
A．When you want to eat a cold dish in summer, you can put some vinegar（醋）in it.
B．If you can’t finish your food and want to eat it again next day, you should cook it first.
C．You’d better eat clean and fresh food in summer.
D．People should eat or drink something cold just after dinner.
56．The passage mainly talks about ______.
A．the best thing to eat on a hot summer day is ice cream
B．how to eat healthily in summer
C．why the food goes bad easily in summer
D．some problems about your stomach
C
Being outgoing is good for your life. Outgoing people like to meet lots of people and have more fun in life. In fact, being outgoing is not so hard as you think. Even shy people can be outgoing.
You can start becoming outgoing with your best friend or a group of friends. But the real challenge（挑战）comes when you meet strange people or new fiends. Smile（微笑）more, and they will usually smile to you, too. In this way, you may have some talks.
Start a talk. Just a simple “Hello” or “How is it going” is a good start. If you want to make interesting talks, you should read news in newspapers and prepare your ideas, or surf the Internet for new information and then keep that in mind.
The easiest way to become more outgoing is to go out. This is also the most important. Go to a park, beach, club, party or any other place that you think can be fun, and you may make new friends there.
57．You can start becoming outgoing with ______
A．your parents B．your teachers C．your friends D．strangers
58．When you start a talk, you should say “______”
A．What’s the matter B．What’s your name
C．How is it going D．Are you healthy
59．The easiest way to be outgoing is. ______
A．talking B．smiling C．playing D．going out
60．What’s the best title（题目）of this passage
A．Being Outgoing Is Difficult B．How to Surf the Internet
C．The Ways to Be Outgoing D．Going Out Is Important
D
Welcome to your future life!
You get up in the morning and look into the mirror, you look young. In 2035, many people can live to be about 150 years old. So at the age of 40, you’re not old at all. And your parents look the same age as you!
You say to your shirt, “Turn red.” It changes from blue to red. In 2035, “smart clothes” can change the color and style as you like.
You walk into the kitchen. You pick up the milk, but you hear the voice（声音）: “You shouldn’t drink that!” Your fridge（冰箱）remembers the information about the milk. It knows that the milk is not fresh.
It’s time to go to work. In 2035, cars drive themselves. Just tell your “smart car” where to go. On the way, you can call a friend with your watch. Such “smart technology” is all around you.
So will all these things come true “All these things will come true, even better,” says a scientist.
I am looking forward to the new life.
61．How do “you” look in the mirror in 2035
A．Young. B．Fat. C．Healthy. D．Tired.
62．Where is the “voice” from
A．The watch. B．Your mother. C．The milk. D．The fridge.
63．What are the cars in 2035 like
A．They run in the sky. B．They don’t need gas（汽油）.
C．They don’t need drivers. D．They can talk with humans.
64．Which of the following is TRUE about the life in 2035
A．No one can live to be about 150 years old.
B．People don’t need to wear clothes.
C．People don’t need to have breakfast.
D．People can call their friends with a watch.
65．What does the writer think of the life in the future
A．It will be as good as now. B．It will be much better than now.
C．It will be as bad as now. D．It will be much worse than now.
Ⅸ．任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，按要求完成66至70题。
It was a sunny and hot day. Little Sam was very happy, because he could go shopping with his mom. In the shopping center, they bought many things.
In the middle of the center, he saw four mirrors. Sam was interested in them. He came and stood in front of the first one. Oh, no! The boy in the mirror was not him. He was short and fat. Then Sam come to another mirror. This time he was very thin and tall and his legs were very long. This was not him, either. In the third mirror, Sam was tall with a long neck. Sam thought he looked really funny and interesting.
“You look like a giraffe,” Mom said and laughed, too. Sam came to the last mirror. “Look, Mom,” Sam said, “It’s me. I’m not tall or short. And I’m not fat or thin. I’m of medium height. It’s good.”
“What makes me look different in the other three mirrors ” Sam asked. “Science.” Mom said.
“Science is so magic!” Sam said, “I want to study science. I really love science. When I grow up, I want to be a scientist.”
Sometimes a kid’s interest about something appears by mistake. Encouragement（鼓励）is quite important for children to grow up.
66，67题完成句子；68题简略回答问题；69题找出并写下第二段的主题句；70题将文中画线句子译成汉语。
66．Little Sam was very happy, because he could ______ with his mom.
67．Sam looked short and fat in ______.
68．What did Sam think of himself in the third mirror
______________________________________________________________________________________________
69．__________________________________________________________________________________________
70．__________________________________________________________________________________________
X．词语运用（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词（有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式）
Do you know a school called Tancheng No.1 Middle School in Linyi Now it is famous 71．______ a women’s football team. In 2017, they 72．______ (get) the champion（冠军）in Chinese School Football Championship（锦标赛）.
Why are they so 73．______ (success) They are only students from a small town. Before the match, 74．______ 5:30 every morning, these girls started their training. They decided 75．______ (bring) out the best in themselves, so they practiced football really hard every day. Their coach（教练）Yao Bo said, “I know it is difficult 76．______ (win), but I hope to try 77．______ (help) them. If we 78．______ (keep) on working together, we will win the match. I am looking forward to 79．______ (hear) their good news.” Just as Yao Bo said, they were always ready 80．______ (face) any problems. Finally, they made it.
Ⅺ．基础写作（包括A、B两部分，A部分5分，B部分15分，共计20分）
A）连词成句（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。句末标点已给出。
81．what, future, be, like, will, the
______________________________________________________________________________________________
82．will, be, fewer, trees, there
______________________________________________________________________________________________.
83．be, will, polluted, cities, more
______________________________________________________________________________________________.
84．the, environment, in, danger, be, will
______________________________________________________________________________________________.
85．everyone, play, in, the, earth, should, part, saving, a
______________________________________________________________________________________________.
B）书面表达（15分）
86．习主席在2023年新年贺辞中说到：“今天的中国，是梦想接连实现的中国”。国家有梦，民族有梦，我们也有梦。请根据导图提示及要求，以“My life in the future”为题写一篇短文。
要求：（1）短文须包括所有提示内容，可适当发挥；
（2）短文中不能出现真实人名，校名和地名；
（3）词数：80个词左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）
My Life in the Future
What will my life be like in the future Let me tell you. _____________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年第一学期期末调研考试
八年级英语试卷参考答案
注：阅卷前，阅卷老师务必统一评分标准，认真核对答案，再评卷！此答案仅供参考！
1-5 ABACA 6-10 ACBAB 11-15 B BABB
16-18 BAB 19-20 BA 21-25 CCACB
31-35 BADDA 36-40 DADBB 41-45 CCCAA
46-50 BCBBC 51-53 ABB 54-56 BDB
57-60 CCDC 61-65 ADCDB
评分标准：1．1-50小题，每小题1分，计50分；51-65小题，每小题2分，计30分。
2．凡与答案不符者不得分。
V．听短文填空
26．15\fifteen 27．quieter 28．Large 29．drawing 30．twice
评分标准：1．每小题1分，计5分。
2．凡与答案不符，但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
Ⅸ．任务型阅读
66．go shopping 67．the first mirror
68．He thought he looked really funny and interesting.
69．In the middle of the center, he saw four mirrors.
70．鼓励对孩子的成长很重要。
评分标准：1．每小题2分，计10分。
2．凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写（包括大小写）等错误酌情减分。
X．词语运用
71．for 72．got 73．successful 74．at 75．to bring 76．to win 77．to help 78．keep 79．hearing 80．to face
评分标准：1．每小题1分，计5分。
2．凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅺ．A) 连词成句
81．What will the future be like
There will be fewer trees
Cities will be more polluted
84．The environment will be in danger
85．Everyone should play a part in saving the earth
评分标准：1．每小题1分，计5分。
2．凡与答案不符者不得分。
B) 书面表达
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据短文的内容要点初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的语言要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名，酌情减分。
二、内容要点
三、评分标准
一档 13-15分 包含了所有要点，能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档 10-12分 基本包含了所有要点，并有一定发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档 7-9分 包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，字数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档 4-6分 只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档 0-3分 只包含了一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。
四、说明
1．内容要点可以用不同方式表达。
2．相同的错误不重复计算。
