郫都区2023—2024学年度上期期中考试
高 二 英 语
（时间：120分钟 满分：150分）
注意事项：
1.答题前，务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卷规定的位置上。
2.选择题使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡上对应题目标号的位置上，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后再填涂其它答案；非选择题用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡的对应区域内作答，超出答题区域答题的答案无效；在草稿纸上、试卷上答题无效。
第I卷 选择题（共95分）
第一部分 听力（共两节,满分 30 分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话或独白后有1个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the woman do tonight
A. Do her work. B. See a film. C. Date with the man.
2. Where does the conversation take place
A. At a bank. B. On the street. C. At a hotel.
3. What can we learn about the man
A. He likes watching TV.
B. He thinks well of the Internet.
C. He is going to buy a TV.
4. When is the woman going to attend her swimming lesson this afternoon
A. At 4:30. B. At 5:15. C. At 4:45.
5. What do we know about the man
A. He has found another job.
B. He is quite confident of himself.
C. He is upset about losing his job.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What upsets the woman
A. Too many people at the river.
B. The trash on the river bank.
C. The heavily polluted river.
7. What are the speakers going to do
A. Pick up the trash.
B. Stop people littering.
C. Hold a swimming contest.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
8. What can we know about the writer
A. He was born disabled.
B. He likes to go sightseeing.
C. He has written many books.
9. How do the speakers feel about the writer
A. Sympathetic. B. Inspired. C. Amused.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. How does the man want to learn writing
A. Self-teaching.
B. Studying in a classroom.
C. Taking a course on the Internet.
11. Why does the man want to take writing courses
A. To make more money.
B. To enjoy the fun of writing.
C. To become a professional writer.
12. What brochure will the man receive
A. Creative writing. B. Fiction writing. C. Business writing.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why was the woman absent from the party
A. She visited Lily.
B. She was studying for the final.
C. She didn’t like social activities.
14. When will the final be
A. About a week later. B. About two weeks later. C. About a month later.
15. How does the man feel about the coming final
A. Confident. B. Worried. C. Unconcerned.
16. What will the man do next
A. Stay up studying. B. Take notes in class. C. Ask Lily for help.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What is WSP looking for
A. Project organizers. B. Volunteers. C. Project designers.
18. What is the Japan project
A. Short-term. B. Medium-term. C. Long-term.
19. What will you do if you take part in the Poland project
A. Play with the children.
B. Take care of the children.
C. Improve the children’s holiday center.
20. What is the India project for
A. Poor children.
B. Homeless children.
C. Children with disabilities.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项。
A
Fall is one of the absolute best times to go camping. Not only is the summer heat quickly fading from memory, but the landscapes are painted with vibrant colors as the leaves make their annual change from green to gold, orange, and red. If you’re planning a camping trip this autumn, we have some suggestions on where you should go, no matter which part of the country you live in.
Acadia National Park, Maine
Fall comes early to Acadia National Park, with the leaves beginning to change color in early September. Still, the park is one of the best places to set up camp in the autumn, offering around one hundred sites for campers. But, if you want to experience autumn in Maine at its finest, book a spot in the Blackwoods Campground.
Fall Creek Falls State Park, Tennessee
The main attraction at Tennessee’s Fall Creek Falls State Park is its waterfall. But, the park has amazing options for campers too, including more than 220 campsites spread out across five different areas in various parts of the 26,000 acre landscape.
Carson National Forest, New Mexico
Home to New Mexico’s highest mountain, Carson National Forest offers visitors plenty of surprises, providing 80 safe campsites. The forest features a 16-mile long hiking trail and is home to elk, bear, big horn sheep, and other large creatures.
Gunnison National Forest, Colorado
With plenty of wild backcountry to explore, thousands of trails to wander, and some of the best fall colors found anywhere on the planet, Gunnison National Forest is a paradise for campers. The region has 56 designated campsites, allowing visitors to choose where to set up camp based on their favorite outdoor settings.
21. Which is the main reason why fall is a good camping time
A. The scenery is colorful. B. The summer is very hot.
C. The leaves are painted. D. The landscapes are vertical.
22. Which place offers the most campsites for visitors
A. Acadia National Park. B. Fall Creek Falls State Park.
C. Carson National Forest. D. Gunnison National Forest.
23. Where should visitors go if they are interested in wildlife
A. Acadia National Park. B. Fall Creek Falls State Park.
C. Carson National Forest. D. Gunnison National Forest.
B
On August 5 just after 7.30 pm, Mike Estepa suffered a massive heart attack. The crazy cyclist was 40 kilometres into his Sunday ride when he stopped by the side of the road to text his family saying he’d be home in about 30 minutes. Moments later, he was lying in the ditch(沟渠), unconscious.
Larissa Arthur was driving back to Calgary from a hike in Field, B. C. with a friend. It was a warm and sunny day, and the two were chatting when a flush of yellow caught Arthur's eyes. She immediately pulled off the road.
As Arthur approached the figure, she feared the worst: Estepa was covered in ants and showed no signs of life. “There was no pulse and he wasn't breathing.” says Arthur. A bystander called 911 and Arthur, a registered nurse, started CPR. She and two other drivers took turns carrying out CPR for the next 15 minutes before medical teams, arrived and took Estepa away.
Two days later, when Estepa woke up in the hospital, he was shocked to learn he had gone into cardiac arrest (心脏骤停). How did this happen, and why was he lucky enough to have survived He was full of gratitude and needed to speak with the woman who had saved him, whom he named his “angel”.
“It was emotional,” says Arthur of her meeting with Estepa a few weeks later. Saving his life had extra importance for her: the hike she was returning from that day was one of 100 she had planned to honour her father, who died in 2017 after he fell during a hike that Arthur was meant to be on. “I couldn't save my father's life.” Arthur says, “but this was a chance for me to save someone.”
24. Why did Mike Estepn stop while riding
A. He suffered a heart attack. B. He wanted to send a message.
C. He would like to lie in the ditch. D. He was too far away from his home.
25. What do we know about Arthur
A. She was an registered doctor. B. She was scared of ants.
C. She knew how to do CPR. D. She went cycling with a friend.
26. What did Arthur think of her saving Estepa
A. Grateful. B. Lucky. C. Significant D. Natural.
27. What's the best title of the text
A. A Life-saving CPR B. An Angel on the Roadside
C.A Risky Cycling Alone D. A Chance to Help Others
C
When the company OpenAI developed its new artificial intelligence (AI) program, ChatGPT, in late 2022, educators began to worry. ChatGPT could create texts that seemed as if a human wrote it. How could teachers discover whether students were using language created by an AI chatbot to cheat on a writing task
As a linguist who studies the effects of technology on how people read, write and think, I believe there are other more concerns besides cheating. These include whether AI, more generally, threatens student writing skills, the value of writing as a process, and the importance of regarding writing as a tool for thinking.
As part of my research on the effects of AI on human writing, I surveyed young adults in the U.S. about some issues related to those effects. One participant said that at some point if you depend on predictive（预设的）text, you're going to lose your spelling abilities. Enter “Was Rom” into a Google search and you're given a list of choices like “Was Rome built in a day.” These tools complete our sentences automatically (自动化地), giving us little chance to think about our spelling.
Evan Selinger, a philosopher, worried that predictive texting reduces the power of writing as a form of mental activity and personal expression. “By encouraging us not to think too deeply about our words, predictive technology may change how we deal with each other,” Selinger wrote. “Automation can stop us thinking and the resulting text didn't feel like mine anymore.”I asked ChatGPT whether it was a threat to humans' motivation to write. The bot responded: “There will always be a demand for creative, original content that requires the unique viewpoint of a human writer.” It continued: “Writing serves many purposes beyond just the creation of content, such as self-expression, communication, and personal growth, which can continue to encourage people to write even if certain types of writing can be automated.”
I was glad to find the program had seemingly admitted its limitations.
28. What is the author's main concern about ChatGPT
A. Whether it will lead to students' cheating.
B. Whether it will shape students' writing style.
C. How students will make use of it at school.
D. What effects it will have on students' writing.
29. What will predictive technology do to us according to Evan Selinger
A. Give us more creative ideas.
B. Make us write like a machine.
C. Encourage us to think more deeply.
D. Make us tend to ignore grammatical mistakes.
30. What can we learn from ChatGPT's response
A. Human writing will still matter a lot.
B. Robots will work with humans in writing.
C. Robot writing will become more creative.
D. Writing will become completely automated.
31. What is the passage mainly about
A. How to apply AI technology to education B. What is the future of modern literature
C. How to improve writing with AI's help D. What impact will AI bring to writing
D
Have you ever found that you were able to sleep better with an air conditioner or fan running or perhaps with the sound of rain falling outside If so, then you’re already familiar with white noise.
White noise refers to a noise that has a mixture of all the audible (听得见的) frequencies that the human ear can detect. It is a combination of all the frequencies of sound played at once. It can cover the sounds of other noises because of its various frequencies, leading many people to experience its calming effects.
Researchers have studied the effect of white noise on humans for many years, finding evidence it can reduce crying in infants and improve work performance.
Many studies have also examined how white noise may affect human sleep. They found that listening to white noise positively affects sleep. For example, people living in a high-noise area of New York City fell asleep faster and spent more of their time in bed asleep while listening to white noise. In another study, listening to white noise through headphones improved sleep quality for seriously ill patients in a loud hospital room.
However, a recent analysis of multiple studies looking at white noise’s effect on sleep has produced mixed results. The researchers are doubtful about the quality of existing evidence and conclude that further research is necessary in order to widely recommend white noise as a sleep aid. They also note that in some instances, white noise can perturb a person and may affect their hearing.
Despite that, researchers are still optimistic that the steady white noise might reduce a sleeper’s sensitivity to unpredictable noises from the environment, such as transportation sounds like cars and planes, which are considered a major contributor to poor sleep.
32. Why does white noise have calming effects
A. Because it can absorb other noises.
B. Because it can help people sleep better.
C. Because it can be detected by human ears.
D. Because it can cover the sounds of other noises.
33. How does the author explain the benefits of white noise
A. By giving examples. B. By telling stories.
C. By asking questions. D. By making comparisons.
34. What does the underlined word “perturb” in paragraph 5 mean
A. Amuse. B. Calm. C. Disturb D. Warn. .
35. Which statement may researchers agree with according to the last two paragraphs
A. White noise should be strongly recommended as a sleep aid.
B. Harmful effects of white noise have become a major concern.
C. Poor sleep will make people sensitive to the unpredictable noises.
D. More researches are needed to confirm the effect of white noise on sleep.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Everyone knows about straight-A students. Many straight-A students actually put in fewer hours of homework time than their low-scoring classmates. Here are some secrets of the young study champions.
36
Top students bear no breaks on study time. Once the books are open, phone calls go unanswered, TV shows unwatched, and snacks ignored. Study is business; business comes before recreation.
Get organized.
Paul Melendres, a straight-A freshman from New Mexico, keeps two folders (文件夹)—one for the day's assignments, another for papers completed and graded. 37 . Melendres' methods have actually proven effective. Even students who don't have a private study area remain organized to cut down time-wasting searches.
Clean up your act.
Neat papers are likely to get higher grades than messy ones. “The student who turns in a neat paper,” says Claude Olney, an Arizona State University business professor, “is already on the way to an A.” It's like being served a cheeseburger. 38
Speak up.
“If I don't understand what my teacher is explaining, I asked him to repeat it,” says Christopher Campbell. Class participation goes beyond merely asking questions, though.
39 “Better academic grades come from better understanding.” says Campell. “I don't want to memorize information for tests only.”
Test yourself.
As part of her note-taking, Domenica Roman emphasizes points that she thinks may be covered during exams. 40 Later she gives herself a written examination before test day. “If I can't answer the questions satisfactorily, I will go back and review.” she says.
A. Set priorities.
B. Schedule your time.
C. She designs test questions based on them.
D. It's a matter of showing intellectual curiosity.
E. A bag or drawer keeps essential supplies together.
F. Hard work isn't the whole story behind their academic grades.
G. You can't believe it tastes good if it's presented on a dirty plate.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共四节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D），选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
If you need courage when facing a challenge, learn from Jessica Cox. Born in February 1983 in Sierra Vista, Arizona, Jessica Cox 41 her parents. Why She had no arms. As Cox grew up, her mother 42 that her daughter had the 43 to live a normal life by doing things differently.
44 independent at a young age, Cox learned to tie her shoes, get dressed and take a
45 . She also got prosthetic (假体的) arms then and used them for 11 years, all the time
46 why she had to live with them. Getting called names like “Robot Girl” made her
47 and quiet. But at age 14, everything changed.
Cox remembers boarding the bus on the first day of 8th grade with a 48 by Eleanor Roosevelt running through her mind. “No one can make you feel inferior (卑微的) without your
49 ” She decided to accept her 50 and removed her prosthetic arms for good. Cox says that it is not until we are 51 to ourselves that we are able to overcome our challenges. That year, she also 52 her black belt from the International Taekwondo(跆拳道) Federation!
After college, Cox was 53 by Arizona Daily, which kick-started her career as a lecturer. She has spoken to audiences in over 26 countries since then. Cox often 54
people in a humorous way.
Cox conquered her greatest fear-flying and in 2011 became the world's first armless pilot. She uses her feet to fly the plane! So learn from Jessica Cox— 55 are opportunities.
41. A. shocked B. excited C. annoyed D. touched
42. A. doubted B. ordered C. denied D. thought
43. A. choice B. challenge C. right D. fear
44. A. Rarely B. Extremely C. Hardly D. Patiently
45. A. trip B. break C. bath D. course
46. A. wondering B. wandering C. expecting D. waiting
47. A. proud B. considerate C. shy D. kind
48. A. sign B. quote C. note D. warning
49. A. fight B. pride C. comment D. permission
50. A. personality B. strength C. difference D. popularity
51. A. grateful B. close C. unique D. true
52. A. removed B. acquired C. attempted D. purchased
53. A. reported B. called C. informed D. improved
54. A. agrees with B. argues with C. quarrels with D. communicates with
55. A. Fears B. Challenges C. Experiences D. Advantages
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题，共55分)
第三部分 英语知识运用
第二节 语篇填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
Home to the headwaters of the Yangtze, Yellow, and Lancang rivers, the Sanjiangyuan area on the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau (青藏高原) 56 （know）as "China's water tower." It is
57 unique plateau wetland ecosystem and serves as an important ecological defense for the country.
Decades ago, serious 58 (environment) degradation (恶化) in Sanjiangyuan,
59 was caused by climate change and human activities, resulted in a large number of lakes drying out and wildlife numbers falling 60 (sharp). Great efforts have been made to turn the park 61 a symbol of the progress of China's ecological civilization.Over the past years, the environment of the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau 62 (experience) great changes. Water conservation in the area has risen by 11 percent this year, 63 (compare) with 10 years ago. Local people enjoy the gifts given by nature, and the establishment of the national park has enabled them to become its protectors and benefit from it. Some work as tour guides, assisting 64 (visitor) from home and abroad.
Today, as people walk on the vast land of Sanjiangyuan, 65 (look) at the mountains, glaciers, and lakes, and catching sight of wild animals and birds, they cannot help but be impressed by the vastness and beauty of nature.
第4部分
第5部分 任务型阅读（共两节，满分20分）
My Big Solo（独唱）
When I was in middle school, my family moved to Seattle. As a girl of shy nature, I had to take a fresh start to fit into the complicated life.
One sunny day, my school announced an exciting event, a talent show for the local food bank. Students were encouraged to show their unique talents. Excitement filled the school as everyone began preparing for the big day. Deep down, I felt a spark of curiosity and a desire to participate. However, my self-doubt held me back, “I don't have any special skills to share.”
Days turned into weeks, and the talent show approached. One day Emma, one of the most popular girls in my class, came to me. “How about singing together in the talent show ” She grinned, “I heard you singing a tune, along the way home. I can't help following you here.” Gosh, I couldn't believe my ears. Since Emma had the world's prettiest voice, I felt like being favoured by fortune.
My mum heard our conversation and her face lit up. “A big event.” Then she suggested, “Why not practise right now upstairs I believe you'll be a perfect match.”
Emma and I kept rehearsing(排练) almost every single day after school. As the days went by, I was feeling pretty good about our act. But the day before the talent show, Emma called that she had an acute stomachache and was unable to perform.
第一节 根据本文内容从方框中选择恰当的词并用其正确形式填入文本图示中，每词限用一次，有两词为多余选项（每小题1分，共10分）
excitement shock perform curiosity doubt go
adapt popular practise difficult change favour
第二节 根据文本内容回答下列问题 (50字左右，共10分)
76. What would I do next and what would happen in the end
第五部分 写作（满分20分）
假如你是李华，为了帮助新到你班的英国交换生Peter适应中国生活，你决定周日邀请他一起参加社区活动，体验中国文化。请你给Peter写一 封Email, 主要内容如下:
1.地点与时间安排; 2.介绍活动内容(包粽子，品茶等); 3.此次活动的意义。
注意: 1.词数100左右;
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯;
Dear Peter,
2022级高二英语半期考试答案
第一部分 听力：
1—5 ACBCB 6—10 BAABC 11—15ACBAB 16—20 CBACC
第二部分 阅读理解：
21-23. ABC 24-27. BCCB 28-31.DBAD 31—35. DACD 36-40 AEGDC
第三部分 语言知识运用
第一节 完形填空： 41-55 ADCBC ACBDC DBADB
第二节 语法填空：
56. is known 57. a 58. environmental 59. which 60. sharply
61. into 62. has experienced pared 64. visitors 65. lookingX6
第四部分 任务型阅读
第一节 选词填空
66. adapt 67. excited 68.curious 69.doubted 70.popular
71. being favored 72.practising 73.going 74. performance 75. Shocked
第二节 回答问题
I felt worried and upset at first and even wanted to quit, but then with mom and Emma encouraging me, I was determined to face the challenge and carried on practising for the performance. Finally, I did a great job in the performance, and I felt confident to fit into the new life.
第五部分 写作
第一节 书面表达（满分25分）
