2023年下学期八年级期中考试英语试卷答案
听力技能
1-5 BCBAA 6-10 BCBAB 11-15 BBACC 16-20 AABCC
第二部分 阅读
21-23 CAC 24-27 CCAA 28-31 BBBA
32-36 EDCAB
37. Three.
38. Because they can be happier and more confident.
39. They can learn to enjoy being alone.
40. Going to the cinema. /Visiting a place./Playing computer games...
第三部分 语言运用
41-45 BCBCA 46-50 ABACB
51. wonderful 52. by 53. arrived54. noodles 55. sunny
56. were 57. best 58. a 59. anything60. really
61.我们听了两个多小时的讲座。
62.大约十二点，我们在一个餐馆吃一些美味的食物。
63. I asked the students about their exercise and eating habits.
64.所有学生总是吃垃圾食品。
65. They decide to exercise every day.
第四部分 作文 略2023年下学期八年级期中考试英语试卷
时量：100 分钟 满分：100 分
注意事项：
1.答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号、考室、座位号、班级填写清楚；
2.必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3.答题时，请考生注意各题题号后面的答题要求；
4.请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁；
5.答题卡上不准使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸
第一部分 听力技能（共两节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
( ) 1. What is the woman in the soap opera
A. A singer. B. A writer. C. A teacher.
( ) 2. Where did the boy go last night
A. Tо the shop. B. At home. C. Tо the cinema.
( ) 3. How often does Jimmy watch the cartoon
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
( ) 4. What does Judy plan to do this afternoon
A. Go shopping. B. Play soccer. C. Watch TV.
( ) 5. Which character are the speakers talking about
A. Mulan. B. Mickey Mouse. C. Snow White.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
( ) 6. How long was the talk show
A. 30 minutes long. B. 40 minutes long. C. 50 minutes long.
( ) 7. What did Bob think of the talk show
A. It was serious. B. It was boring. C. It was enjoyable.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
( ) 8. What is High Jump
A. A soap opera. B. A game show. C. A talk show.
( ) 9. Where does Mark like to go in his free time
A. Tо the museum. B. Tо the park. C. Tо the cinema.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
( ) 10. How many kids go to the cinema together
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
( ) 11. What time is the film
A. At 7:00 p.m. B. At 7:30 p.m. C. At 8:00 p.m.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14题。
( ) 12. What does Jason do on Sundays
A. He watches TV. B. He visits his grandma. C. He does his homework.
( ) 13. What kind of TV shows does May like best
A. Comedies. B. Cartoons. C. Sports shows.
( ) 14. Who does May often watch the news with
A. Her father. B. Her mother. C. Her sister.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。
( ) 15. When did Jeff go to the farm
A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday.
( ) 16. What did Jeff help the farmer grow
A. Onions. B. Carrots. C. Tomatoes.
( ) 17. What did Jeff give the farmer
A. A radio. B. A book. C. A bag.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。
( ) 18. What is Mr. White like
A. He is quiet. B. He is friendly. C. He is funny.
( ) 19. When did Mr. White start to play the piano
A. At eight. B. At ten. C. At twelve.
( ) 20. What prize did Mr. White win in the talent show
A. A bike. B. A piano. C. A computer.
第二部分 阅读（共三节，满分40分）
第一节（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Wanda Cinema HOME COMING Sept. 30th—Oct. 20th Time: 7:15 p.m. (7:00 p.m. on Sept. 30th) Tickets: Monday—Thursday: 35 Friday: 39.9; Saturdays/Sundays: 45.9
21. HOME COMING starts at ________ on Oct. 17.
A. 7:15 a.m. B. 7:00 p.m. C. 7:15 p.m.
22. On which day can you get the cheapest ticket
A. Monday. B. Friday. C. Sunday.
23. If Mr. and Mrs. White want to go to the Wanda Cinema with their son on Monday, they need to pay ________.
A. 35 B. 79.8 C. 105
B
Last week, I took my daughter to a park. When we got there, my daughter ran to the swing and asked for a push (推). When I was helping my daughter go higher, I saw another girl trying to make her own swing go higher. Her mother was sitting quietly on a bench (长凳).
I gave my daughter one big push and then walked to the girl. I asked her if she wanted me to push her. She said, “Yes!” For the next two hours, I pushed swings and played with my child and the girl. When we went home, I was very tired, but I felt happy.
Two years later, I was tired after a long day’s work. But I needed to pick up my kids from school before going home. I stood in the parents’waiting area. Suddenly, a girl hugged (拥抱) me. I looked down and found she was the girl in the park. She gave me one big hug before getting on the school bus. As I watched her back, I didn’t feel tired anymore.
In life, the love we give others will find its way back to us again.
24. What was the girl doing when the writer pushed her daughter
A. Sitting quietly on a bench.
B. Playing with her grandmother.
C. Trying to make her swing go higher.
25. How long did the writer play with the girl
A. For half an hour. B. For one hour. C. For two hours.
26. Where did the writer meet the girl two years later
A. At the school gate. B. In a park. C. In a theater.
27. What can we learn from the passage
A. We should give our love to others in need.
B. We should play with kids more often.
C. You won’t feel tired if someone hugs you.
C
On February 17th, 2021, the program of “Touching China 2020” was held. 99-year-old Ye Jiaying was one of the top ten people.
Ye was born in Beijing in 1924. At the age of 11, she began to learn poetry (诗歌). In 1941, Ye went to the Chinese Department of Furen University (大学). In 1945, Ye left university and taught in a middle school in Beijing. Then in the 1960s, she went to foreign countries to teach Chinese ancient poetry.
In 1978, Ye decided to return to China to teach, and that was allowed in 1979. Then she went back to China to teach on vacations every year. “I went back to teach during the holiday and I didn’t take any accept money from my country. I just did the right thing,” Ye said. “My return to China to teach was what I wanted.” Over the past 70 years, Ye has trained a large number of talents in traditional Chinese culture, and made great contributions to the spread (传播) of Chinese culture. She not only teaches Chinese traditional poetry well, but also mixes Chinese culture with Western culture.
28. How old was Ye Jiaying when she left university
A. 20 B. 21 C. 24
29. What does the underlined word “contributions” in the last paragraph mean
A. 发展 B. 贡献 C. 创新
30. What’s the writer’s attitude (看法) about Ye Jiaying？
A. He thinks she is just a common person.
B. He thinks she is great and hard-working.
C. He thinks she spends her time on meaningless things.
31. Which would be the best title for this passage？
A. The Story of Ye Jiaying.
B. The Importance of Poetry.
C. The Beauty of Chinese Culture.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，每个选项仅使用一次。
Do you get angry when your friends sing loudly while you are trying to work or when your best friend does not wait for you after school
______ Getting angry with others can cause (造成) you to lose friends.
Gary Egeberg, an American high school teacher, wrote My Feelings Are Like Wild Animals to help you control (控制) your feelings. 33. ______
The book says that getting angry only makes problems worse. 34. ______ “Getting angry is not a natural way to act, ” the book says, “It’s just a bad habit, like smoking. ”
The book says you can control your anger easily-all you have to do is to tell yourself not to be angry.
The book gives many tips to help you if you get angry easily. 35. ______
★ Keep a record (记录). When you get angry, write down why you are angry. Look at it later and you will see you get angry too easily.
★ Ask your friends to stop talking to you when you get angry. This will teach you not to be angry.
★ 36. ______ When you get angry, walk away from the problem and go somewhere else. Try to laugh.
A. Here are the top three.
B. Do something different.
C. It can never make them better.
D. It tells how to stay cool when bad things happen.
E. If you do, you need to control your feelings.
第三节（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。
Do you actually love yourself In fact, self-love is a very important thing you can do for yourself. When you truly love yourself, you can be happier and more confident (自信的). Here are some ways on how to love yourself.
※Stop comparing yourself with others. Everyone is special, so you don’t need to be like anyone paring with others will make you feel bad about yourself. Everyone is talented in their own way.
※Stop trying to be perfect. No one is perfect, so you don’t have to be hard on yourself. You need to give yourself a break from time to time.
※Have fun by yourself. It’s always good to have a few days just for you to do something fun. This could be going to the cinema, visiting a place and so on. You can learn to enjoy being alone by doing this.
37. How many ways about how to love yourself are mentioned (提及)
38. Why should people love themselves
39. What can people learn from having fun by themselves
40. What things can you do to have fun by yourself
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分30分）
第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It’s true that most students like to watch TV. But most parents don’t 41 their children to do like this. In their opinion, students should read books, and only reading is 42 .
As a student, you 43 be one of them who like watching TV. What kind of TV show do you like In fact, students often have a 44 about TV shows before or after class. Lin Ming, a sports lover, thinks it helpful to watch sports shows.
He likes the famous player Kobe Bryant best. Every time when Bryant’s team wins, he would tell the exciting 45 to his classmates. But most girls in the class can’t 46 it. Girls only love soap operas. 47 would like to sit together and talk about the story that 48 in it. Simon, one of the boys who takes an interest in animals doesn’t like soap operas at all. He believes that watching a soap opera is so 49 , because it lasts too long. He thinks he really has no time to follow the story. Many boys like him would enjoy cartoons. The 50 why they like cartoon movies best is they are always so funny.
41. A. see B. expect C. believe
42. A. interesting B. difficult C. educational
43. A. should B. might C. must
44. A. meeting B. visit C. discussion
45. A. news B. day C. sport
46. A. stand B. think C. watch
47. A. She B. They C. He
48. A. happens B. lives C. writes
49. A. exciting B. necessary C. meaningless
50. A. story B. reason C. culture
第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I don’t like to stay at home during the vacation. Last summer, my family took a trip to Hong Kong. It was a 51. _____ (wonder) trip.
We went there 52. _____ plane, because we wanted to get there as soon as possible. We 53. _____ (arrive) there at about eleven o’clock and we had lunch there. We ate 54. _____ (noodle). They were delicious. The weather was 55. _____ (sun) and hot, so we swam in the sea. There 56. _____ about 100 people on the beach.
Disneyland is one of the 57. _____ (good) places in Hong Kong, so we also visited the Disneyland. After visiting it, we had a meal in one of the restaurants in the park. My parents felt 58. _____ little tired, so I met Mickey Mouse and Donald Duck by myself. We stayed in Hong Kong for a week. We took many photos but we didn’t buy 59. _____ (something) because things in the store were too expensive. And then, we went back home.
It was 60. _____ (real) a fantastic trip. I enjoyed the trip.
第三节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，将画线部分译成英文或中文。
Last Friday, my students and I went to a talk (讲座) on health at Health Club. We went there by bus. 61. We listened to the talk for more than two hours. There, the students learned how to eat and exercise. Everyone said they learned a lot. 62. At about twelve, we had some delicious food in a restaurant. After lunch, it started to rain. We had to get on the bus. On our way back to school, 63.我询问了学生们的运动和饮食习惯。
Only 20% of the students usually exercise, while the rest like staying at home and watching TV. Most of the students usually eat vegetables. 64. All the students always eat junk food. But few students drink coffee.
Now after the talk, they all know some of their habits aren’t good for their health. 65.他们决定每天锻炼. And they also try to eat more healthily.
61. _________________________________________________________________
62. _________________________________________________________________
63. _________________________________________________________________
64. _________________________________________________________________
65. _________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写作（满分10分）
66.学校英语角即将开展一次以“朋友”为主题的演讲活动，你写一篇演讲稿参加活动，包括以下内容：
1.介绍他/她成为你最好朋友的原因。
2.分享你们的相同点和不同点。
词数80左右；可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；文中不能透露考生身份的任何信息。
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
