汕头市金平区2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末考试
英 语 科 试 题
说明: 1.全卷共8页，考试用时为90分钟（其中听力考试时间约20分钟），满分120分；
2.答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、试室号和座位号填
写在答题卡相应位置上；
3.选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑，如需改动，用
橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案。作答在试卷上的答案无效；
4.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相
应位置上。如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案。不得准使用铅笔或涂改
液，否则答案无效；
考试结束时，将试卷、答题卡一并交回。
第I卷 (共75分)
一、听说应用（本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共30分，分为A、B、C、D四部分为听力理解，E部分为情景对话）
A. 听单句 （本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。
1. Who came to the school today
A. B. C.
2. When is the birthday party
(
12
) (
15
) (
20
)
A. B. C.
3. How much yogurt does the speaker need
A. B. C.
4. What will AI be able to do in the future
A. B. C.
5. Which kind of show did the speaker watch last night
A. B. C.
B. 听对话（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第6小题。
6. What time will the film start
A. At 3:10. B. At 3:15. C. At 3:30. .
听第二段对话，回答第7小题。
Where did Amy go on vacation
A. To the beach. B. To the mountain. C. To the countryside.
听第三段对话，回答第8小题。
How often does Steve practice bicycling
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
听第四段对话，回答第9小题。
9. Who is the most outgoing
A. Tony. B. David. C. Robert.
听第五段对话，回答第10小题。
What does Emily think of John’s dream job
A. Easy. B. Hard. C. Great.
听第六段对话，回答第11~12小题。
What party is it
A. A goodbye party. B. A housewarming party. C. A birthday party.
12. Where are they going this Saturday morning
A. To Kim’s house. B. To Laura’s home. C. To a supermarket.
听第七段对话，回答13~15小题。
13. Where might this conversation be
A. At a competition. B. On television. C. In a concert.
14. What is the worst thing
A. To run away from problems.
B. To keep the problems to oneself.
C. To talk about the problems all the time.
15. Who does Dr. Hunt advise the students to talk to
A. Their teachers. B. Their friends. C. Their parents.
C. 听短文（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。短文听两遍。
How many times did Ted take a plane
A. 29. B. 36. C. 14.
17. Who traveled around the world with Ted
A. His agent. B. His girlfriend. C. His family.
18. Where did Ted went to see a doctor
A. In India. B. In Australian. C. In New Zealand.
19. What’s Ted’s favorite thing in China
A. Seeing cute pandas. B. Trying delicious food. C. Walking in the forest.
20. What can we know from the story
A. Ted is unhappy to go back home.
B. Ted and his parents live in Toronto.
C. Ted will go on a class trip next week.
D. 听填信息（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到的是有关电影《欢乐好声音2(Sing 2)》的介绍。请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡相应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
Characters: the singers: ＊from the small town ＊want to sing at the 22. theater in the city Mr. Crystal: ＊not interested in the singers but Calloway ＊gives the singers 23. weeks to prepare for the show Ending: The singers start to 24. themselves and make Calloway join ments: ＊ with more amazing 24. ________ ＊ 25. but sweet enough to warm you up.
E. 情景对话（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请通读下面对话，根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑，选项中有一项为多余选项。
A. That sounds cool! B. I hope I can travel to the moon one day. C. It must be an interesting book. D. Did you stay up late for your favorite TV show E. Why did you go to bed so late F. Would you like to go with me
A: You look tired, Eric! 26
B: No. I was reading a book and forgot all about the time.
A: 27 What’s it about
B: Space travel. It says we can take a starship just like getting on a plane in the future.
A: Wow! 28
B: Yeah. Scientists are trying to make it possible. 29
A: That is possible. But I’d like to travel to Mars (火星) and live there. 30
B: Living there No! I think it is best to live on our mother Earth.
二、语法选择（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
在每小题所给的三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选
项涂黑。
Once upon a time, there lived a farmer. He grew very good corn. Every year, he would take part in the state farmers' fair and win 31 first prize for his corn.
The farmer’s story reached the ears of a reporter. The reporter asked the farmer 32 he grew his corn and learned something interesting about it -- the farmer shared his 33 corn seeds (种子) with his neighbors.
“There are competitions 34 you and your neighbors. Why do you do that when some of their corn 35 be as good as yours ” the reporter asked.
“The wind picks up pollen (花粉) from the corn and carries it from field to field. If my 36 corn is not so good, it will make my corn bad. If I want to grow good corn, I must help them 37 their corn, too,” said the farmer.
So it is with our lives: If you 38 to live in peace, you must help others around you to live in peace. By helping others, you help 39 . So, do not be afraid to share your experience and good ideas with others. You will be 40 that people around you will be willing to help you out in return.
31. A. a B. an C. the
32. A. how B. why C. when
33. A. nicer B. nicest C. the nicest
34. A. between B. below C. behind
35. A. need B. should C. might
36. A. neighbor B. neighbors C. neighbors’
37. A. improve B. improved C. improving
38. A. choose B. are choosing C. will choose
39. A. you B. your C. yourself
40. A. surprise B. surprised C. surprising
三、完形填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Max Burns, a 19-year-old British man, won millions of fans on the Internet because of his videos of making Chinese food.
Max’s parents worked in China for many years. So Max spent his first 13 years being immersed (沉浸于) in Chinese 41 -- learning the language and enjoying the food. When his family moved back to Brighton, UK in 2016, Max 42 Chinese food very much. He began to order some from local Chinese restaurants at first. But the meals didn’t 43 the same as they were in China. They were also very expensive. Then Max 44 to make Chinese dishes at home.
Max found that many of his friends didn’t know much about 45 Chinese food. He wanted to do something. Then he made videos of making Chinese food and used them to give 46 lessons. In his videos, Max 47 others to cook Chinese food at home step by step. He even made jianbing and zongzi. The videos have made him 48 all over the world.
“When people ask me where I’m from, I find it hard to answer because I 49 in China and now I am living in the UK,” he says. “I’m just trying to share Chinese culture and British culture with Chinese and British people, and build a 50 between them.”
41. A. art B. culture C. character D. history
42. A. cooked B. served C. missed D. prepared
43. A. smell B. look C. sound D. taste
44. A. disliked B. agreed C. forgot D. decided
45. A. real B. poor C. cheap D. personal
46. A. online B. computer C. college D. medicine
47. A. paid B. expected C. taught D. advised
48. A. available B. popular C. comfortable D. different
49. A. dressed up B. took up C. grew up D. made up
50. A. center B. screen C. mirror D. bridge
四、阅读理解 （本大题共15小题，A篇与B篇每小题2分，C篇每小题1分，共25分）
阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
As the New Year of 2023 comes, some people love the tradition of making resolutions. So, how can you keep the New Year flag (旗帜) standing Come to our school hall at 3:00 this Friday afternoon and listen to a talk by Ms. Ann Smith! ★ ▲ If your New Year’s plan is to exercise five days each week, a plan like “I’ll exercise on weekdays” would be not clear enough. A plan like “I’ll exercise at school on weekdays during my lunch break” would be better. ★ Get a little help from your friends. Tell a few friends about your resolutions. Then if you want to give up at some point, they will be the ones to make you hold on. ★ Make it fun. If it’s not fun to exercise or study, you won’t keep at it easily. But if you get fun from your exercise or study, you’ll keep longer. If you can only drink your favorite juice during study hours or watch your favorite TV show after finishing your homework, you’ll look forward to studying. It is not easy for us students to keep a New Year plan and this talk will surely give us some help. There are only 100 seats for the talk and we will have the “first come, first served” rule. Book early through our hotline: 390-4567 and bring your student card to get into the hall.
51. Who is this talk for
A. Parents. B. School students. C. Planning experts. D. School teachers.
52. Which of the following sentences can be put in ▲
A. Exercise more often. B. Start your day earlier than normal.
C. Make a clearer plan. D. Tell your parents about your plan.
52. Why should you tell a few friends about your resolutions
A. To make a good plan for you. B. To help them make plans.
C. To get them to exercise more. D. To help you keep your plans.
53. How can you keep you studying longer
A. By doing easier exercises. B. By making apple juice.
C. By watching TV at the same time. D. By bringing some fun to it.
55. What should you do to get a seat in the talk
A. Make a call. B. Show a plan. C. Hold a flag. D. Send a card.
B
Recently, a woman shared on the Internet that she had a birthday dinner not long ago. Before booking a table at a restaurant, she sent out a message to her friends and asked them to make an RSVP. On her birthday, the woman and her guests were very happy. However, a man who didn’t make the RSVP arrived. Unluckily, there was no seat or meal for him. The man got angry and said the woman was a bad friend. She felt sad.
Many people commented on the story. Most of them said the woman did nothing wrong. The friend should have made an RSVP. So, what is an RSVP Why is it important
RSVP is short for the French word “répondez s’il vous plait”, which means “please reply”. RSVPing to an event like a birthday party is important. It can help the host know how many people will come to the event and so he or she can make a successful plan for it. The host needs to buy food and drinks, or sometimes spend money booking a nice place. It must take the host a lot of time and hard work to plan the event. So, making an RSVP can be very helpful.
If you get an invitation asking for an RSVP, please tell your host if you can go to the event or not as soon as possible. It takes your host some time to invite you. You should also spend some time replying.
56. How does the writer start the passage
A. By telling a story. B. By showing facts. C. By asking questions. D. By giving numbers.
57. Why was the woman’s friend angry
A. Because he didn’t like the dishes at all.
B. Because he didn’t hear from the woman.
C. Because he couldn’t have a meal or a seat.
D. Because he waited too long for the dishes.
58.What does the underlined word “comment on” in paragraph 2 mean
A. find out B. give opinions on C. make up D. write down
59. How might a host feel if he or she gets an RSVP
A. Nervous. B. Upset. C. Glad. D. Surprised.
60. Which is the best title for the passage
A. Don’t Keep Guests Waiting B. Throw a Successful Party
C. Help Your Host with Party Planning D. Please Reply to an Invitation
C
配对阅读。左栏是五个人的烦恼，右栏是七则建议，请将它们正确匹配，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
I feel things are difficult for me this year. I feel sad and lonely. My parents say it is not OK to eat fast food. But it is not expensive and I can enjoy it with my friends. Last week, my teacher asked me to speak in front of the class. l did nothing wrong but felt so uncomfortable. I want to get to school on time, but it’s difficult for me to get up even after I have enough sleep. 65. I’ve got a part-time job at a book store. But my parents ask me to just study at home. A. You can set an alarm clock (闹钟) and put it far from your bed. So you have to get out of bed to turn it off. In this way, you can get up on time. B. Everyone experiences something like this. Why not have a pet It can help you through your difficult times. C. I’m just like you. So l often volunteer (自愿) to put up my hand to ask or answer a question as soon as possible. After that I can sit back and relax. D. It’s important to do housework. It can help you prepare for the future. You can do small things such as making the bed or setting the table. E. Fast food is bad for your health because it is high in fat and salt. Why not have meals at home and enjoy healthy food F. It is a common problem. When you stay up late the night before a school day, then you probably get up late. Try to go to bed early and have enough sleep. G. You can tell your parents that part-time jobs are important for you to step into the world of work. They can teach what you can’t learn at school like problem-solving and communication.
第Ⅱ卷 综合运用 (共45分)
词语运用（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分。）
根据句意，用所给单词的首字母或所给单词的适当形式填空，并将完整单词填写在答题卡上。
66. Boys and girls aged from 13-19 are t .
67. The box is heavy. It is f of old magazines.
68. Bob invited Jane to his party, but she didn’t a it.
69. Who is more ___________ (talent) in music, Wei Fang or Li Hui
70. There will be less ___________ (pollute) in the future if we plant more trees.
完成句子（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分。）
根据中文在空格处填入一个单词，补全句子。
71. 如果我穿牛仔裤去上学，会发生什么？
What ________ ________ if I wear jeans to school
72. 玛丽是班上听课最认真的。
Mary listens __________ _________ in her class.
73. 塔拉不如她的姐姐工作努力。
Tara doesn’t work _________ ________ as her sister.
74. 他一点也不关心别人，只想着他自己。
He doesn’t ________ _________ other people at all but only thinks of himself.
75. 昨晚珍妮直到世界杯最后一场比赛结束才睡觉。
Jenny __________ go to bed _________ the last game of the World Cup finished last night.
七、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
请用适当的词完成下面这篇短文，并把所缺单词填写在答题卡指定的位置上。每个空只能填写一个形式正确、意义相符的单词。
Fiona is a popular girl at school. She asks all her classmates to come to her birthday party. She gives gifts to them sometimes. She is busy with everyone, so she doesn’t spend much 76 with anyone. But she feels great about herself 77 other girls don’t have so many friends at school.
Everything changed on the International Friendship Day. It’s a festival for good friends. Everyone made three gifts and gave them to 78 best friends. Unluckily, no one gave gifts to Fiona! No one saw Fiona 79 their best friend! She felt 80 and cried. Everyone came to comfort (安慰) her. 81 they only stayed for a while and then left --- just what Fiona usually does to others. Now she knows these are not enough to 82 sure that you have a true friend.
“Fiona, my dear, it’s not 83 easy thing,” her mother said to her. “You cannot make true friends with just a smile or a few good words. You need to 84 them your care and love. You must always be there for them.”
“But I want to be everyone’s true friend!” Fiona said.
“My dear, you’re a lovely girl,” said her mother, “but it is 85 to be a true friend to everyone. It’s enough to have just a few true friends.”
八、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（本题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
请阅读下面这篇文章，根据所提供的信息，完成问题卡，把答案写在答题卡指定的位置上。
Sheep a Sheep or Yang Le Ge Yang, a game on WeChat, suddenly became popular all over the Internet. Less than 0.1% of players can finish all the levels (关卡). Those who have tried it can certainly share the ups and downs of trying to finish the second level. However, just like anything in our life, the time spent on games like this should be balanced (平衡) and not be bad for our life (our health, family, relationship, school, etc.). If we balance our time, the games will be a good thing. Thirty minutes of gaming a day can exercise our mind. We may be better at problem-solving and remembering things. A study found that playing video games for just 12 hours a year improved the reading levels of players who had reading problems. The kind of games can also become unhealthy really soon. We can ask ourselves some questions to help us decide if a game is becoming an addiction (入迷). First, am I spending money on this addiction Second, am I playing this game when I go to the bathroom, study, have meals or do other everyday activities Third, is this game making my life worse Things are good in balance. It is the same with our mobile game time, because we need to enjoy games without the addiction to them.
86. What is Sheep a Sheep
____________________________________________________________
87. How much time can we spend in gaming a day
____________________________________________________________
88. Can playing video games help improve players’ reading levels
____________________________________________________________
89. What can we do to help us decide if a game is becoming an addiction
____________________________________________________________
90. Why should we keep our mobile game time in balance
____________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题15分）根据要求完成短文写作，请将作文写在答题卡指定的位置上。
为了帮助同学们培养积极健康的娱乐休闲习惯，预防游戏上瘾，学校公众号的英语栏目发起征文活动，请你结合自己的经历和看法写一篇短文。
内容包括：
1. 你喜欢上文的这款游戏吗？为什么？
2. 你平时玩手机游戏的习惯（频率和时长）;
3. 防止手机游戏上瘾的建议（两点）。
作文要求：
1. 不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现学校真实的名称。
2. 行文连贯，词数70个左右。首句已经给出，不必抄写到答题卡上。
Today, many people, especially young people, spend too much time playing mobile games like Sheep a Sheep. _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________汕头市金平区2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末考试
英语科听力部分
首先播放一分钟音乐，请监考老师调试好播音设备音量，音乐结束后，考试正式开始。
（试听到此结束）
一、听说应用
A. 听句子。请根据所听内容，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每个句子听两遍。听每小题之前，你有5秒钟的时间阅读题目，每小题听完后，你有5秒钟的答题时间。(停顿5秒)
1. We invited a cook to the school to give a lesson to the students today. (停顿10秒)
2. I’m afraid I can’t be here for your birthday party on Friday the 20th. (停顿10秒)
3. In my sandwich, I’d like to add two spoons of yogurt on the bread. (停顿5秒)
4. AI will be able to help write articles for newspapers in the future. (停顿10秒)
5. Last night, I watched a show of Chinese traditional culture on TV. (停顿10秒)
B. 听对话。请根据每段对话的内容回答问题，从每小题所给的三个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。听每小题之前，你有5秒钟的时间阅读题目，每小题听完后，你有5秒钟的答题时间。
(停顿5秒) 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
W: Are we late for the film
M: No. The film will start at 3:30.
（停顿10秒）听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
M: Did you have a nice vacation, Amy
W: Yeah. I went to the beach with my family. We really had a good time there.
（停顿10秒）听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
W: Do you like sports, Steve
M: Yes. I like bicycling best and I practice it on Tuesday and Friday every week.
（停顿10秒）听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
M: It is said that David is much more outgoing than Tony.
W: Yes, that’s true. But Robert is even more outgoing than David.
（停顿10秒）听第5段对话，回答第10小题。
W: What are you going to do when you grow up, John
M: I’m interested in pop music, Emily. I want to be a pop singer.
W: That’s not easy, though I know you sing well.
（停顿15秒）听第6段对话，回答第11--12小题。
M: Kim and I want to throw a goodbye party for Laura. It is this Saturday night at Kim’s house.
W: That’s a good idea! What do we need to do
M: We need to get some food and drinks. Let’s buy some this Saturday morning.
W: No problem. Let’s go to the supermarket near my home.
（停顿25秒）听第7段对话，回答第13--15小题。
M: Dr. Hunt, welcome to our “Teens Show”! Today we’re going talk about students’ problems.
W: Thanks, Mr. Brown. Yes, I’ve talked with many students and most of them have problems.
M: And the worst thing is to run away from problems. What suggestions do you usually give them
W: I might advise them to talk to their parents. They are always there to help them.
M: Does that work
W: Yes, it works. Most parents are understanding and they have more experience. （停顿15秒）
C. 听短文。请根据所听内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。短文听两遍。听短文之前，你有25秒钟的时间阅读题目，听完后，你有25秒钟的答题时间。（停顿25秒）
Ted is a middle school student, but he visited 29 different countries, flew in a plane 36 times and traveled 95,000 km.
14 months ago, Ted’s parents, Joe and Karen, stopped their normal lives and traveled around the world with Ted and his sister Louise. Things didn’t always go well. “Louise lost her ID card in Australia, Ted had to see a doctor in India, and we got lost in a forest in New Zealand!” said Karen. But they had a good time most of the time. Ted’s favorite thing was seeing pandas in China. “They were so cute.” he said.
Now Ted and his family are back at home in Chicago. They’re slowly going back to normal life. “It’s great to be back” said Ted, “but I’m planning my next trip! Next week, I’ll go on a class trip to Toronto. I can’t wait for it!” （停顿25秒）
D. 听填信息。你将听到的是有关电影《欢乐好声音2》的介绍。请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。本题听两遍。听录音之前，你有25秒钟的时间阅读题目，听完后，你有25秒钟的答题时间。（停顿25秒）
Are you still lost in the movie Sing Well, the singers from the small town are back! This time, in Sing 2, they want to sing at the best theater in the city. However, it’s not easy. There is an interesting story behind it.
Mr. Crystal, the owner of the theater, takes no interest in these singers. But he is interested in a rock star Calloway. So he gives the singers three weeks to prepare for the show and to get Calloway to sing with them.
In the following three weeks, they practice very hard. Then, they start to believe in themselves. And they also try their best to make Calloway join them. This movie has more amazing songs. You will surely love it, because it is simple but sweet enough to warm you up. (停顿25秒）
听力考试到此结束。英语科参考答案和评分说明
一．听力理解 (每题1分)
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
11. A 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. C
16. B 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. C
21. best 22. three/3 23. believe in 24. songs 25. simple
26. D 27. C 28. A 29. B 30. F
21-25题评分标准：单词拼错不给分，23题每词0.5分，24题复数不扣分，25题形式错扣0.5分。
二．语法选择 （每题1分）
31. C 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C
36. C 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. B
三、完形填空 （每题1分）
41. B 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. A
46. A 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. D
阅读理解 （51—60题每题2分，61-65题每题1分）
51. B 52. C 53. D 54. D 55. A
56. A 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. D
61. B 62. E 63. C 64. A 65. G
五、词汇运用 （每小题1分）
66. teenagers 67. full 68. accept 69. talented 70. pollution
66-70题评分标准：单词拼错不给分，66-68题形式错每个单词扣0.5分，70题复数扣0.5分。
六、完成句子 （每词0.5分）
71. will happen 72. most carefully 73. as hard
74. care about 75. didn’t; until
七、短文填空 （每题1分）
76. time 77. because 78. their 79. as 80. sad/unhappy
81. But 82. make 83. an 84. give 85. impossible/hard
76-85题评分标准：单词拼错不给分，形式错每个单词扣0.5分。
八、读写综合
A)回答问题 （每题2分）
86.（It’s）A game on WeChat.
87. (We can spend) Thirty/30 minutes (in gaming a day).
88. Yes, it can.
89. We can ask ourselves some questions.
90. Because we need to enjoy games without the addiction to them.
（本大题没有首字母大写，没有句号各扣0.5）
B) 书面表达 (15分)
Today, many people, especially young people, are addicted to playing mobile games like Sheep a Sheep. I can’t stand this game because it is very difficult. I think it is meaningless.
I only use the mobile phone on Sunday afternoons. I spend less than 30 minutes on mobile games each time. Most of the time I use my phone to do more meaningful things.
In my opinion, we shouldn’t spend too much time on mobile games. If it is hard for you, ask your parents to help you. What’s more, we should do more exercises and take part in healthy activities. It can help us enjoy the real happiness of life. (95 words)
评分原则与方法：建议从内容、语言、书写及字数三方面进行评分
内容要点分数分布：（6分，要点齐备即可得6分）
1. 你喜欢这款游戏吗？为什么？-------------------------------- 1+1分
2. 你平时玩手机游戏的习惯（频率和时长）;--------------------- 1+1分
3. 防止手机游戏上瘾的建议。---------------------------------------- 1+1分
语言、书写及字数分 (9分，分档得分)
档次 分值 标准
一档 8-9 表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有个别语言错误；有分段，有适当的过渡句或过渡词；卷面整洁清晰，字数不少于70字。
二档 6-7 表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少数语言错误；卷面清晰，字数不少于70字。
三档 4-5 表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有一些语言错误；卷面不够清晰，字数少于70字。
四档 2-3 能写出少量正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错误较多。
五档 0-1 错漏百出，无一正确句子。
几点说明：
1. 正确引用原文句式且运用得当的，不扣分；
2. 空白卷或只抄写与写作话题无关的文段或句子（如抄写完形），得0分；
3. 全篇只抄写信息归纳题文章的全部或部分内容，得1分；
4. 字数少于70字的作文，语言分最多只能评第三档。
