2022 年秋季学期期末考试答题卡
八 年 级 英 语
缺考标记：［］（由监考员填涂，考生严禁填涂）
学生考号： 学校： 班别：
姓名： 座号：
1．答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、学生考号填写清楚，
并认真核准条形码上的学生考号、姓名。
注
正确填涂 2．选择题部分必须使用 2B 铅笔填涂；非选择题部分必
意
须使用黑（蓝黑）墨水笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。 条形码粘贴区
事
错误填涂 3．请按照题号顺序在各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题
项
［√］［×］［－］［●］ 区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
4．保持卷面清洁，不折叠，不破损；不得使用涂改液、
修正胶带纸。
第Ⅰ卷 （共 90 分）
一、听力测试（共 30小题，每小题 1分，共 30分）
（一）听句子，选图片。 （二）听句子，选答语。
1 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］［F］ 6 ［A］［B］［C］
2 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］［F］ 7 ［A］［B］［C］
3 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］［F］ 8 ［A］［B］［C］
4 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］［F］ 9 ［A］［B］［C］
5 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］［F］ 10 ［A］［B］［C］
（三）听对话，选择最佳答案。
11 ［A］［B］［C］ 16 ［A］［B］［C］
12 ［A］［B］［C］ 17 ［A］［B］［C］
13 ［A］［B］［C］ 18 ［A］［B］［C］
14 ［A］［B］［C］ 19 ［A］［B］［C］
15 ［A］［B］［C］ 20 ［A］［B］［C］
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。
21 ［A］［B］［C］
22 ［A］［B］［C］
23 ［A］［B］［C］
24 ［A］［B］［C］
25 ［A］［B］［C］
（五）听短文，填信息。
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
二、单项选择（共 10小题，每小题 1分，共 10分）
31［A］［B］［C］ 36 ［A］［B］［C］
32［A］［B］［C］ 37 ［A］［B］［C］
33［A］［B］［C］ 38 ［A］［B］［C］
34［A］［B］［C］ 39 ［A］［B］［C］
35［A］［B］［C］ 40 ［A］［B］［C］
三、完形填空（共 10小题，每小题 1分，共 10分）
41 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 46 ［A］［B］［C］［D］
42 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 47 ［A］［B］［C］［D］
43 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 48 ［A］［B］［C］［D］
44 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 49 ［A］［B］［C］［D］
45 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 50 ［A］［B］［C］［D］
四、阅读理解（共 20小题，51～55每小题 1分，56~70每小题 2分，共 35分）
51 ［T］［F］ 56 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 61 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 66［A］［B］［C］［D］
52 ［T］［F］ 57 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 62 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 67［A］［B］［C］［D］
53 ［T］［F］ 58 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 63 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 68［A］［B］［C］［D］
54 ［T］［F］ 59 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 64 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 69［A］［B］［C］［D］
55 ［T］［F］ 60 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 65 ［A］［B］［C］［D］ 70［A］［B］［C］［D］
五、情景交际（共 5小题，每小题 1分，共 5分）
71 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］
72 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］
73 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］
74 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］
75 ［A］［B］［C］［D］［E］
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
第Ⅱ卷 （共 30 分）
六、综合填空（共 20小题，每小题 1分，共 20分）
（一）单词拼写（共 5小题，每小题 1分，共 5分）
76． 77． 78． 79． 80．
（二）词形变换（共 5小题，每小题 1分，共 5分）
81． 82． 83． 84． 85．
（三）选词填空（共 10小题，每小题 1分，共 10分）
86． 87． 88． 89． 90．
91． 92． 93． 94． 95．
七、语篇表达（共 10分）
What will my life be like in 20 years I think I will have a better life than now.
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效
考
生
请
勿
在
此
区
域
作
答
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效2022年秋季学期期末考试八年级英语
参考答案
第Ⅰ卷
一、
（一）1~5 CAFEB
（二）6~10 ACCAB
（三）11~15 CABAB 16~20 ACACB
（四）21~25 BACBA
（五）
26. Job 27. 18/eighteen 28. math 29. last 30. July
二、31~35 ACABC 36~40 ACBAB
三、41~45 CABDB 46~50 CACAD
四、51~55 FTFFT 56~60 CDACB
61~65 CDBAC 66~70 DBCAC
五、71~75 DBEAC
第Ⅱ卷
六、
（一）
76. mistake(s) 77. without 78. refuse 79. already 80. careful
（二）
81. invitation 82. meaning 83. dangerous 84. pianist 85. opening
（三）
86. how 87. two 88. early 89. But 90. never
91. remember 92. afraid 93. Finally 94. water 95. from
七、One possible version:
What will my life be like in 20 years I think I will have a better life than now.
In 20 years, I will have a big house. I will live with my parents. In my garden, we will plant lots of flowers. And maybe I will have two children and they are cute and lovely. I will be a writer. I will write many interesting stories on the computer. When I am free, I will take a trip to other planets with my friends. And I will have a robot at home. He will help me with her housework.
I think my life in 20 years will be exciting and wonderful. And I am working hard to make it come true.
书面表达评分说明：
1．本大题满分为10分，可按六个档次评分。
2．评分时，先根据所写的句子的内容及语言知识的运用情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求进行微调，最后给分。
书面表达评分标准
第一档（10分）: 能把所有方面内容要点完整表达，时态、人称正确；逻辑
性强，层次清晰，紧扣主题，语言流畅，卷面清洁。
第二档（8～9分）: 基本包含所有内容要求，句子表达基本完整，时态基本正
确，逻辑性一般，语言表达一般，卷面基本清洁，根据《评
分细则》扣分后评分。
第三档（6～7分）: 包含大部分内容要点，有少数句子表达不完整，个别时态、
人称出现错误，根据《评分细则》扣分后评分。
第四档（4～5分）： 缺漏部分内容要点，标点符号不明确，句子有错，语言表
达不清，卷面涂改痕迹多，根据《评分细则》扣分后评分。
第五档（2～3分）： 仅有少数句子反映内容要点，多数句子出现错误，卷面较
差，根据《评分细则》扣分后评分。
第六档（0～1分）： 没有按要求表达，只能写出与所要求内容有关的一些单词，或
者仅有个别句子能表达内容要点，大多数句子语言表达错误，卷面极差，根据《评分细则》扣分后评分。
附：评分细则
1.卷面清洁得1分，语言流畅得1分，能按要求表述完整内容，按信息点给分。
2.句子结构（含语态、时态、主谓一致等）：每错两处，扣0.5分。一处可忽略
不计，如果同一篇文章6处出现错误只扣2分。全错扣5。
3.单词拼写错两处扣0.5分。一处可忽略不计， 如果同一个单词多处出现错误
只扣0.5分。
4.如果一个句子可以表达两个内容，按两个句子计算得分。
5.涂改及大小写如果有2～5处错误扣0.5分，5处以上扣1分，最多只扣1分。2022年秋季学期期末考试试题卷
八年级 英语
注意：1．本试题卷分第I卷和第Ⅱ卷，满分120分，考试时间120分钟。
2．考生必须在答题卡上作答，在本试题卷上作答无效。考试结束，将答题卡上交。
第I卷（90分）
一、听力测试（共30小题，每小题1分，共30分）
（一）听句子，选图片。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到五个句子，请在下列六幅图中，选出与所听句子内容相符的图片。每个句子读一遍。
A B C D E F
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
（二）听句子，选答语。（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
你将听到五个句子，请根据句子内容，选择恰当的答语。每个句子读两遍。
6. A. No, they won’t. B. No, they aren’t. C. No, they don’t.
7. A. A teacher. B. By subway. C. In Shanghai.
8. A. I’m afraid so. B. I like jeans, too. C. That’s not a good idea.
9. A. It’s Wednesday the 6th. B. It’s sunny. C. It’s winter.
10. A. Two. B. Two spoons. C. Two dollars.
（三）听对话，选择最佳答案。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11—13小题。
11. Where did Tony go on the weekend
A. To the library. B. To the park. C. To the zoo.
12. How many people went there
A. Four. B. Five. C. Six.
13. What does Tony’s sister want to be
A. A tennis player. B. A soccer player. C. A volleyball player.
请听第二段对话，回答第14—16小题。
14. Where are the speakers
A. At a party. B. At a meeting. C. At a concert.
15. Who is Justine visiting in Hong Kong
A. His brother. B. His sister. C. His parents.
16. What does Emma sometimes go to Paris for
A. For work. B. For study. C. For travel.
请听第三段对话，回答第17—20小题。
17. What is Ada bringing
A. Fruit and drink. B. Yogurt and juice. C. Chips and chocolate.
18. Who is a DJ
A. Zoe . B. Ada. C. Noah.
19. Why did Lucy and Lily miss the last party
A. They were ill. B. They were busy. C. They were on vacation.
20. What are they preparing for
A. A meeting. B. A party. C. A food festival.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。(共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
21. What does the speaker want to order
A. Some fresh fruit. B. A birthday cake. C. Some birthday candles.
22. How old is the speaker’s daughter going to be
A. Twelve. B. Thirteen. C. Twenty-five.
23. What fruit doesn’t the speaker’s daughter eat
A. Oranges. B. Apples. C. Bananas.
24. What time does the speaker need the thing
A. At 7:00 am on Saturday. B. At 11:00 am on Saturday.
C. At 11:00 pm on Saturday.
25. What’s the speaker’s telephone number
A. It’s 2578212. B. It’s 2785212. C. It’s 7528212.
（五）听短文，填信息。(共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读两遍。
A call from Jim Green
Why interested in the summer 26. in a gift shop
What ◆27. years old ◆studying 28. at a university ◆sold sandwiches in a store 29. summer ◆will be able to work every day from 30. to September
二、单项选择。（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
从下列每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31. —Linda, can you come to my birthday party
— . I have to look after my grandma at home.
A. I’m afraid not B. Sounds great C. Yes, no problem
32. —How was Tom’s birthday party
—Great. All the people enjoyed at the party.
A. myself B. himself C. themselves
33. Sue looks because she lost her pet dog.
A. upset B. angry C. dangerous
34. —What are your
—I like singing and reading.
A. habits B. hobbies C. resolutions
35. —Would you like to go to the library with me this afternoon
— . I love reading very much.
A. Maybe B. Probably C. Certainly
36. We all Li Hua because he always keeps his word.
A. trust B. dislike C. disagree
37. Winter vacation is coming. I’m looking forward to my grandparents.
A. visit B. visited C. visiting
38. If you more, you better at it.
A. will practice, will be B. practice, will be C. will practice, are
39. Mr. Li lost his glasses, so he is them.
A. looking for B. picking up C. writing down
40. There a concert this weekend. Let’s go to it together.
A. was B. is going to be C. is going to have
三、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读以下语篇，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Bill is my best friend. His mother always does 41 really cool.
Yesterday, Bill brought a green cake to school. It looked beautiful and special. At lunch, he 42 the cake with us. We all liked the cake. And we wondered why and 43 his mother made green cakes.
Bill said the story went back to a few weeks ago. The city started a new 44
—we should separate (分开) food garbage (垃圾) from the other garbage.
Bill’s father liked 45 and he ate a lot of them in summer. Bill’s mother always saw a heavy garbage bag full of watermelon rind (皮). She thought, “I should
find a 46 way to use watermelon rind.”
47 thinking hard, she had that good idea—making a cake with it. She first
48 the watermelon rind. Then, she put it in a blender and soon she got 49
juice. She mixed the juice with flour (面粉). 50 she made a delicious green cake.
41. A. nothing B. anything C. something D. everything
42. A. shared B. chose C. covered D. prepared
43. A. when B. how C. which D. where
44. A. film B. example C. subject D. activity
45. A. grapes B. watermelons C. vegetables D. strawberries
46 A. well B. fresh C. better D. fresher
47. A. After B. Before C. Until D. Unless
48. A. put up B. set up C. cut up D. make up
49. A. green B. orange C. yellow D. red
50. A. Second B. Next C. Then D. Finally
四、阅读理解（共20小题，51—55每小题1分，56—70每小题2分，共35分）
A
Over the past three years, Chen Yanzi has spent almost all her time at a primary school in a mountain village of Shanxi Province.
She was a little nervous the first time she went to the school. “I didn’t know what my students would be like,” she said. “However, when I entered the classroom and saw the Chinese words on the blackboard ‘Welcome, Miss Chen’ written by the
students, I felt quite warm.”
She started with six students, in different grades. She taught math and English, as well as music, art and PE. She tried to understand the needs of each student.
In the beginning, when she started an English lesson for Grade 6, she found the students were shy about speaking up. Then she began adding some interesting activities, like English songs and games, to raise the students’ interest in the language. Now, the students have made great progress in English listening, speaking, reading and writing.
After class, Chen often shares knowledge (知识) about health, safety and daily life to help them care for themselves. She also tells them interesting stories about what is happening outside the village to help them learn about the country and the wider world. “I will never regret (后悔) spending my teaching years with children in the village,” she said. “I’ve got a lot of love and happiness here.”
根据语篇内容，判断下列句子正（T）误（F）。
51. Chen Yanzi was a little nervous at first because she didn’t know how to teach.
52. There were only six students in the school at that time.
53. Chen found the students were too lazy to study.
54. After class, Chen often shares knowledge about health and sports to help the
students care for themselves.
55. Chen is proud of (感到自豪) what she has done in the village.
B
My dear friends, can anyone play tennis with me tomorrow
) Kate (
I
’
m going to take a trip to the space museum with my parents. There will be a show about life in space. Maybe another time.
) Sat. 15:52 PM Amy (
I
’
m sorry I can
’
t. I
’
m preparing for the school show these days.
) Betty Jim (
I planned to go to a concert, but I learned they postponed (推迟) it for some reason. So I
’
ll be free tomorrow. When shall we meet
) Sat. 16:01 PM Sarah (
I
’
d love to. But I have a piano lesson in the morning. How about tomorrow afternoon
)
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
56. What does Betty invite her friends to do
A. Play games. B. Watch a show. C. Play sports. D. Go to a concert.
57. Where is Kate going to take a trip
A. To space. B. To a theater. C. To school. D. To a museum.
58. Why can’t Amy play tennis
A. She is preparing for the school show.
B. She is preparing for a test.
C. She is going to a concert.
D. She is going to a movie.
59. When will Sarah have a piano lesson
A. This morning. B. This afternoon.
C. Tomorrow morning. D. Tomorrow afternoon.
60. How many people might go and play tennis with Betty
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
C
What is a working holiday It is a good way o travel around the world and make money at the same time. During holidays, many university students can travel and work in different places. Some do it because they want to learn something new. For example, they plan to learn how to speak a second language.
If you are interested, our travel agency (旅行社) can help you get a job and plan your trip. You only need to pay for your travel, such as the money you spend by air and by taxi.
What work can you do You can choose from the following.
◆Work for a popular children’s magazine in New York.
◆Teach music or sports in an American school.
◆Do some easy work in a museum in Paris.
◆Work in a park like Disneyland in Shanghai.
You can stay for a month or for longer. Think about your favorite place and then decide your trip.
●Take a bank card. You will need money for food, clothes or other things.
●Make two or three copies of important things, like your passport (护照).
Wish you a good time!
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
61. Why do some university students have working holidays
A. To have fun. B. To make money.
C. To learn something new. D. To visit their friends in other countries.
62. What do you need to do if you take a working holiday
A. Find a job. B. Plan your trip.
C. Study your favorite place. D. Prepare enough money.
63. Which country isn’t recommended (推荐) in the passage
A. China. B. The UK. C. France. D. The USA.
64. What can you teach in an American school
A. Sports. B. Geography. C. Chinese. D. Science.
65. What’s the best title for the text
A. What to Buy before a Trip. B. Jobs in Foreign Countries.
C. Start Your Working Holiday. D. How to Plan Your Holidays.
D
Deng Xiaolan was born (出生) in a small village in Fuping, Hebei in 1943. She learned the violin and singing when she was young. She joined the school band after going into Tsinghua University. She also taught her friends to play the violin in her free time.
In 2003, Deng went back to Malan, a village in Fuping, to look for the places where her parents worked before. She met some children there. “Would you like to sing a song with me ” she asked. However, none of them could sing. She felt very sorry and decided to do something for them.
A year later, she started to travel between Beijing and the village to teach the children music. She taught more than 200 children in Malan and nearby villages. She also brought about 500 instruments (乐器) and 1,000 books to Malan. “I like music a lot. Music is like my friend who is always there when I’m happy or sad. I wish that
the children could sing and find some happiness from music. Music will make their life colorful.” Deng said.
Early 2022, Deng took the children to Beijing. They sang the Olympic Anthem in Greek (希腊语) for the Beijing Winter Olympics.
“In the last 18 years of her life, our mother spent most of her time on music education for children in Malan. It brought her much happiness,” her daughter and son said after she passed away on March 21, 2022.
根据语篇内容，选择最佳选项。
66. What did Deng learn when she was young
A. The piano and singing. B. The piano and dancing.
C. The violin and dancing. D. The violin and singing.
67. Who once worked at Malan
A. Deng Xiaolan. B. Deng Xiaolan’s parents.
C. Deng Xiaolan’s grandparents. D. Deng Xiaolan and her parents.
68. When did Deng start to teach the children music
A. In 1943. B. In 2003. C. In 2004. D. In 2022.
69. What is “Olympic Anthem”
A. A song. B. A game. C. A place. D. A program.
70. Which of the following is NOT true
A. Deng hoped music would make the children’s life colorful.
B. Deng got much happiness from teaching the children music.
C. Deng was surprised to see the children were too shy to sing with her.
D. Deng taught her friends to play the violin in her free time in Tsinghua University.
五、情景交际（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
根据对话内容，从下面方框中选出恰当的句子补全对话。
(
A.
And I look after it well.
B.
It
’
s light and fast.
C.
Sure, I
’
d love to.
D.
It
’
s a birthday gift from my parents.
E.
Two years ago.
)A: What a nice bike, Peter!
B: Thank you. 71.
A: What do you think of it
B: 72. I like it very much
and I ride it to school every day.
A: When did you get it
B: 73.
A: But it looks new. How often do you wash it
B: Once a month. 74.
A: By the way, John and I will go traveling by bike in the countryside tomorrow.
Would you like to go with us
B: 75. When shall we meet
A: Let’s meet at 7:30 am in front of the park.
B: OK. See you then!
A: See you.
第Ⅱ卷 （30分）
六、综合填空（共20小题，每小题l分，共20分）
（一）单词拼写（共5小题，每小题l分，共5分）
根据括号内所给的中文提示，正确拼写单词。每空一词。
76. Try not to make the same (错误) any more.
77. They decide to bring Gina to the party (没有) telling her so that she
can be surprised.
78. If you don’t want to go to the concert with Tom, you can (拒绝) him.
79. Yesterday evening, my parents were (已经) at home when I got home.
80. Be (小心的). The floor is wet.
（二）词形变换（共5小题，每小题l分，共5分）
根据句意，用括号中所给的单词的正确形式填空。
81. The passage mainly tells us how to make an (invite).
82. Can you tell me the (mean) of resolution
83. It’s (danger) to touch the fan.
84. My brother likes music and he wants to be a (piano) in the future.
85. The (open) of our new library will be on the morning of Wednesday,
January 18th at 9:00.
（三）选词填空（共10小题，每小题l分，共10分）
根据语篇内容，从方框中选择恰当的单词填空。每个单词只能用一次，每空一词。
(
water
but
afraid two from never remember how finally early
)
Once there was a wise (充满智慧的) man. One day, someone asked 86.
he became so wise. The man shared his story:
I had 87. teachers. One was a fisherman.
Once I stayed with a fisherman for a month. Each day he left 88. and
returned late. When he came back, I would ask him, “Did you get a lot of fish today ” He replied, “Not too much. 89. tomorrow is another day.” Even after daily disappointment (失望) , he 90. lost hope. When I was hopeless, I would
91. his words, “Tomorrow is another day.”
My second teacher was a dog.
Once I found a dog wanting to drink from the river. Seeing his own reflection (倒影) , he got 92. and walked away. But he was so thirsty that he came back. 93. despite (不管) his fear, he jumped into the 94. . Seeing this, I knew I needed to go forward despite all my fears.
There are many people and things in life that we can learn 95. . They are all our teachers.
七、书面表达（10分）
假如你是李华。在英语课上，老师让大家畅想未来，憧憬自己20年后的生活。请你根据以下的内容提示，用英语写一篇短文，与大家分享你对未来生活的憧憬。短文的开头已给出，不计入总词数。
写作要点：
1．家庭方面；
2．工作方面；
3．生活方面。
写作要求：
1．包含所有要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。2．文中不得透露个人信息。3．词数80左右。
What will my life be like in 20 years I think I will have a better life than now.
